Normal integral formula problem

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the derivative of the function f(ln(cos(x))) given that f'(x) = (cos(x))^(1/3). Participants are exploring the application of the chain rule in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of the chain rule to differentiate f(ln(cos(x))) and the implications of the given derivative f'(x). Some express confusion about the steps involved and the interpretation of the problem statement.

Discussion Status

Several participants have attempted to clarify the process of differentiation and have shared their reasoning. There is a recognition of different interpretations of the problem, and some guidance has been offered on how to approach the derivative using the chain rule.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note difficulties in manipulating the expression involving cos(x) and question the assumptions made in the problem setup. There is also mention of a potential misunderstanding regarding the notation used for the derivative.

tee yeh hun
Messages
17
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Given that f'(x)=(cosx)^ (1/3) then find out dy/dx f(ln cosx)=?

The answer given is -(cos(lncos)) ^ (1/3) tanx

Anyone can solve it? I tried and got lost with it

Homework Equations



Using the normal integral formula and derieve it again

The Attempt at a Solution

 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org


By the chain rule we have:
[tex] f(x)=\cos^{\frac{1}{3}}x=u^{\frac{1}{3}}[/tex]
Use the chain rule to obtain
[tex] \frac{df}{dx}=\frac{df}{du}\frac{du}{dx}[/tex]
 


It doesn't really take a genius, just perseverence and steady, step by step work.

By the chain rule, the derivative of f(ln(cos(x))) is f'(ln(cox(x))) times the derivative of ln(cos(x)). And that is the 1/cos(x) times the derivative of cos(x) which is -sin(x).

The derivative of f(ln(cos(x))) is f'(ln(cos(x))) times -sin(x)/cos(x).

Since [itex]f'(x)= (cos(x))^{1/3}[/itex], [/itex]f'(ln(cos(x))= (cos(ln(cos(x)))))^{1/3}[/itex].

Putting those together gives exactly what your book says.
 


here are my further works

I found out my problem it can't be done

The problem is i can't increase the power of cos x to (cos x)^2 so there is only one shortest way to solve it
 

Attachments

  • Eqn2.gif
    Eqn2.gif
    3.8 KB · Views: 488
Last edited:


Here is the shortest way

f'(x )=cos(x )^(1/3)
f'(ln(cos(x )))=cos(ln(cos(x )))^1/3* d(ln(cos(x )))/dy* d(cos(x ))/dy
=cos(ln(cos(x )))^1/3 * 1/cos( x) * (-sin(x ))
=cos(ln(cos(x )))^1/3 * -sin(x )/cos(x )
=cos(ln(cos(x )))^1/3 * -tan(x )

here is the shortest way to finish it

done by anexgenesis
 
Last edited:


If
[tex]u=\cos x[/tex]
and
[tex]f(u)=u^{\frac{1}{3}}[/tex]
then
[tex]df/du=u^{-\frac{2}{3}}/3[/tex]
that is your problem.
 


hunt_mat said:
If
[tex]u=\cos x[/tex]
and
[tex]f(u)=u^{\frac{1}{3}}[/tex]
then
[tex]df/du=u^{-\frac{2}{3}}/3[/tex]
that is your problem.
You're misreading the problem. He's given df/dx=(cos x)1/3, not f(x).
 


Oh right. I didn't see the dash!
 


Problem solved :)
 

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 22 ·
Replies
22
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
19
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K