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Normalizing the Schrödinger Equation

  1. Sep 11, 2008 #1
    Hello all,

    How do you prove that, for the normalization of the Schrödinger equation, you can plug in the initial condition of psi(x,t-naught) that will satisfy normalization?
    Last edited: Sep 11, 2008
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 12, 2008 #2
    Hi Desh627, perhaps you should be more specific as in what you meant.

    Normally one writes down the solution of the Schrodinger equation, then finds the normalisation by computing the norm right?

    If I remember correctly, the norm is time independent?
  4. Sep 12, 2008 #3


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    Staff: Mentor

    Are you trying to prove that if [itex]\Psi(x,t)[/itex] is normalized at t = 0, it stays normalized at later times?
  5. Sep 12, 2008 #4

    Actually, I figured it out, but thanks anyway man. I may be back here later today with more questions.
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