On continuous and locally one-to-one map

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Whether a continuous and locally one-to-one map must be a (globally) one-to-one map? If the answer is not. Might you please give a counter-example? Thank in advance.
 
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The answer is no. Consider the mapping \mathbb{R} \rightarrow S^1 defined by x \mapsto \exp(2\pi i x).
 
Got it, many thanks!

Another question: whether a continuous and locally one-to-one map between two open spaces, e.g., two connected open set of R^n, must be a (globally) one-to-one map?
 
krete said:
Got it, many thanks!

Another question: whether a continuous and locally one-to-one map between two open spaces, e.g., two connected open set of R^n, must be a (globally) one-to-one map?

No, consider

\mathbb{C}\setminus \{0\}\rightarrow \mathbb{C}:z\rightarrow z^2
 
Thanks a lot!
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.

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