On the domain of the function that undergoes the Hilbert transform

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SUMMARY

The Hilbert transform is definitively classified as an integral transform, despite the input function f(t) and the output function \hat{f}(t) being defined over the same domain. This characteristic is coincidental and does not negate its classification as an integral transform. The discussion highlights the relationship between the Hilbert transform and the Fourier transform, where the latter has distinct domains for input and output functions. References to Wikipedia articles on integral transforms and singular integrals provide additional context and validation.

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elgen
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Hi all,

This question is on the Hilbert transform, particularly on the domain of the input and output functions of the Hilbert transform.

Before rising the question, consider the Fourier transform. The input is [itex]f(t)[/itex] and the output is [itex]F(\omega)[/itex]. The function [itex]f[/itex] and [itex]F[/itex] are defined over different domains, [itex]t[/itex] and [itex]\omega[/itex] respectively.

For the Hilbert transform, the input is [itex]f(t)[/itex] and the output is [itex]\hat{f}(t)[/itex]. Both the input and output functions are defined over the same domain. This seems to be inconsistent with the definition of an integral transform.

The question is "would the Hilbert transform be an integral tranform?". My feeling is that the Hilbert transform IS an integral transform. It is a coincidance that the domain of the input function is the same as the domain of the output function. Some assurance is appreciated.

Thank you for the attention.


elgen
 
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