Optical Phonons in Single Atom Crystals: Unraveling the Mystery

BeauGeste
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I thought optical phonons only existed in crystals with two or more types of atoms in a unit cell. But I keep reading references of optical phonons in single atom crystals, like silicon.
What's the deal here?
 
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The crystal symmetry, O_h doesn't eliminate the possibility of optical transitions in Si, but the deformation potentials and dipole mements in silicon are very small yeilding quite small transition intensities.
 
<111> direction in silicon has two different spacings between atoms and thus two spring constants. The eigenvalue equation sets up the same as if there were two different masses.
 
Remember that the total number of phonon modes is equal to the number of atoms. The number of distinct wave-vectors possible is equal to the number of lattice sites. There are therefore a number of different modes at each wavevector equal to the number of atoms per lattice site.

Even in mono-atomic structures, you can have a non-trivial lattice (not a simple cubic) and so have more than one atom per lattice point.
 
To put it differently, silicium cristallizes in the diamond lattice. A primitive cell of the diamond lattice contains two atoms. Compare this to some simpler monoatomic lattice, e.g. I_2 (Iodine).
 
From the BCS theory of superconductivity is well known that the superfluid density smoothly decreases with increasing temperature. Annihilated superfluid carriers become normal and lose their momenta on lattice atoms. So if we induce a persistent supercurrent in a ring below Tc and after that slowly increase the temperature, we must observe a decrease in the actual supercurrent, because the density of electron pairs and total supercurrent momentum decrease. However, this supercurrent...
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...
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