Order of Indefinite Double Integrals

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    Indefinite Integrals
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of indefinite double integrals and the implications of changing the order of integration. Participants explore whether the order of integration affects the results and the distinction between indefinite and definite integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that the order of integration in indefinite double integrals does not matter, proposing that ∫∫ f(x,y) dx dy = ∫∫ f(x,y) dy dx.
  • Another participant counters this by providing an example with the function f(x,y)=1, showing that reversing the order of integration yields different results, indicating a misunderstanding of the term "indefinite double integral."
  • This participant emphasizes that while definite integrals allow for the reversal of integration order under certain conditions (Fubini's Theorem), this does not apply to indefinite integrals.
  • A further elaboration includes an example where reversing the order of integration for a specific function leads to different definite integral results, highlighting the conditions under which the order can be reversed.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the treatment of indefinite double integrals and the implications of changing the order of integration. There is no consensus on the validity of the initial claim about indefinite integrals.

Contextual Notes

The discussion reveals limitations in the understanding of indefinite double integrals and the terminology used, as well as the conditions required for the equality of definite integrals when changing the order of integration.

Kushwoho44
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Hi,

Rather simple question here, just want to confirm:

When we are dealing with indefinite double integrals, it's true to say

∫∫ f(x,y) dx dy = ∫∫ f(x,y) dy dx

i.e, order of integration doesn't matter right?
 
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Lets try it with a function f(x,y)=1. Its indefinite integral with respect to x is x+c. The indefinite integral of that with respect to y is xy+cy+d.

If you reverse the order of the variables, you get xy+cx+d, a different answer.

The term "indefinite double integral" is not really used in mathematics. Probably for this reason. You can find the antiderivative with respect to a given variable, but there is no "double antiderivative" as this calculation shows. On the other hand, you can calculate definite integrals of multivariable functions. And you can reverse the order of integration when you calculate those (Fubini's Theorem).
 
Vargo said:
On the other hand, you can calculate definite integrals of multivariable functions. And you can reverse the order of integration when you calculate those (Fubini's Theorem).

You can't always reverse that order, e.g.
$$
\int_0^1\int_0^1\frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}\,\mathrm dx\,\mathrm dy = -\frac\pi4 \quad\mbox{ but } \quad \int_0^1\int_0^1\frac{x^2-y^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2}\,\mathrm dy\,\mathrm dx = +\frac\pi4
$$

Only when the two definite integrals
$$
\int_{y_1}^{y_2}\int_{x_1}^{x_2}\Big|f(x,y)\Big|\, \mathrm dx\,\mathrm dy <+\infty \quad\mbox{ and } \quad \int_{x_1}^{x_2}\int_{y_1}^{y_2}\Big|f(x,y)\Big|\, \mathrm dy\,\mathrm dx <+\infty
$$
exist, then they are equal, and also equal to
$$
\int_{y_1}^{y_2}\int_{x_1}^{x_2}f(x,y)\,\mathrm dx\,\mathrm dy = \int_{x_1}^{x_2}\int_{y_1}^{y_2}f(x,y)\,\mathrm dy\,\mathrm dx
$$
 
Interesting, thanks for both replies guys.
 

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