Partial differential equation - change of variables.

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The discussion centers on solving the partial differential equation (PDE) 2dz/dx - dz/dy = 0 by using a change of variables. It is shown that if z = f(x + 2y), then applying the chain rule leads to the conclusion that the PDE is satisfied. The transformation to new variables t = x + 2y and s = x simplifies the PDE to dz/dt = 0, indicating that z is independent of s. The final result confirms that z can be expressed as a function of t alone, satisfying the original equation. Understanding these transformations and the application of the chain rule is crucial for solving the PDE effectively.
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Homework Statement



Consider the PDE:

2dz/dx - dz/dy = 0

How can I show that if f(u) is differentiable function of one variable, then the PDE above is satisfied by z = f(x +2y)?

Also, the change in variables t = x+2y, s=x reduces the above PDE to dz/dt = 0. But how can I show this?

The Attempt at a Solution



I simply don't understand, these are my notes from class today and I want to understand while it's early... All I know is that this involves the chain rule.
 
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Shameless bump. This is driving me nuts!
 
mathman44 said:

Homework Statement



Consider the PDE:

2dz/dx - dz/dy = 0

How can I show that if f(u) is differentiable function of one variable, then the PDE above is satisfied by z = f(x +2y)?
Let u= x+ 2y and use the chain rule: \partial f/\partial x= (df/du)(\partial u/\partial x)= f'(u)(1)= f'(u) and \partial f/\partial y= (df/du)(\partial u/\partial y)= f'(u)(2)= 2f'(u). Put those into the equation and see what happens.

Also, the change in variables t = x+2y, s=x reduces the above PDE to dz/dt = 0. But how can I show this?
If t= x+ 2y and s= x, then x= s and t= s+ 2y so 2y= t- s and y= (t-s)/2. Now, \partial z/\partial x= (\partial z/\partial t)(\partial t/\partial t)+(\partial z/\partial s)(\partial s/\partial x)= 1(\partial z/\partial t)+ 1(\partial z/\partial s)= \partial z/\partial t+ \partial z/\partial s and \partial z/\partial y= (\partial z/\partial t)(\partial t)\partial y)+ (\partial z/\partial s)(\partial s/\partial y)= 2 \partial z/\partial t+ 0\partial z/\partial s= 2\partial z/\partial t.

Putting those into 2\partial z/\partial x-\partial z/\partial y= 0 and it becomes 2(\partial z/\partial t+ \partial z/\partial s)- 2\partial z/\partial t= 0.

The two "2\partial z/\partial t" terms cancel leaving 2\partial z/\partial s= 0 which is equivalent to \partial z/\partial s= 0 which says that z does not depend upon s at all. Since any dependence on t alone satisfies that, z= f(t), for t any differentiable function, satisfies that equation.

The Attempt at a Solution



I simply don't understand, these are my notes from class today and I want to understand while it's early... All I know is that this involves the chain rule.
 
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Thanks so much, that makes it seem very intuitive.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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