krab said:
A lucid explanation of the concept of mass is here:
http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-ph/0602037
i like Lev Okun. I've had a few email conversations with him (along with Michael Duff and Gabriele Veneziano) about their "Trialogue on Fundamental Constants" paper (i think Duff might call me a "4-constants" partisan, even though i completely agree with Duff's main thesis).
but i just do not see his point regarding "The pedagogical virus of 'relativistic mass' ". it seems to me, pedagogically, that it's precisely the other way around:
1. after time-dilation, length-contraction, and Lorentz transformation is derived, then, given the same axioms, relativistic mass is derived. it is equivalent to saying that the momentum of an inertial body as viewed by an observer it is moving past is
p = \frac{m_0 v}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}}
and we all agree with that statement. even the relativistic mass deniers. it's just that i continue to recognize that as
p =m v
where
m = \frac{m_0}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}}
2. then it might be asked, what is the kinetic energy, T, of a body with mass at rest m_0 and velocity v? what is the amount of work required to accelerate such a body to velocity v? and we might hope that, when velocity v \ll c that T = \frac{1}{2} m_0 v^2.
when the work (in one dimension) is
T = \int F dx
v = \frac{dx}{dt}
and force is
F = \frac{dp}{dt}
and
p = \frac{m_0 v}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}}
and after you do a little fanagling (substitution of variable and integration by parts), you get this result.
T = m_0 c^2 \left( \left(1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2} \right)^{-\frac{1}{2}} - 1 \right)
which is the same as
T = m c^2 - m_0 c^2
or, as interpretation:
T = E - E_0
where the
total energy of the body is:
E = m c^2
and the energy the body has when it isn't even moving is
E_0 = m_0 c^2.
If commonly agree symbols are used (i would ask you to use m_0 for "invariant mass"), we all agree with this last equation. but, given the expression for "relativistic mass" (that you guys want to dispute the existence of):
m = \frac{m_0}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}}
then even
E = m c^2
is also true and is perfectly consistent with
E^2 = E_0^2 + (p c)^2 = \left( m_0 c^2 \right)^2 + (p c)^2
and we all agree with that equation.
3. The pedagogical problem that i just can't understand from the deniers or relativistic mass is that
E = m c^2 = E_0 + T
compactly (and accurately) relates
total energy of a body as the sum of "rest energy" and "kinetic energy" and the kinetic energy becomes the classical expression
T = \frac{1}{2} m_0 v^2
in the limit where the velocity of the body is at nonrelativistic speeds.
How is it that anyone disputes this?
4. Then, for photons, we start with the result of the photoelectric effect:
E = h \nu
which we interpret as total energy (since the photon was exchanged for added kinetic energy for an electron after paying for the "work function" of the surface):
E = m c^2
so we equate the two and get an inherent (relativistic) mass for the photon as
m = \frac{h \nu}{c^2}
which you guys don't seem to like, but it's the simplest pedagogical path to get the photon momentum of
p = m v = m c = \frac{h \nu}{c}
since the velocity of the photon is, by definition, the speed of light.
And the fact that the
rest mass of the photon is zero comes out simply from
m_0 = m \sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}
when v = c.
Now, none of you guys disagree with this momentum expression:
p = \frac{h \nu}{c}
What is your pedagogically simpler means to get to that expression? why should the momentum of a photon be that expression (from pedagogically fundamental principles)? if, in your derivation, you use
E^2 = E_0^2 + (p c)^2 = \left( m_0 c^2 \right)^2 + (p c)^2
then you need to pedagogically justify that.