Graduate Photon Spin and Polarization filters

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The discussion focuses on understanding how polarization filters operate in the context of photon spins and angular momentum. It highlights that while photons are often described as having spin 1, they are more accurately characterized by helicity due to their massless nature. The conversation references the differing representations of the Poincaré group for massless particles, emphasizing that photons possess two degrees of freedom related to their helicity. Additionally, a video from 3Blue1Brown is recommended for further insights into the quantum mechanics of photons and polarization filters. Overall, the distinction between spin and helicity is crucial for accurately describing photon behavior in polarization contexts.
PavanKumar
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I understand how polarization can be explained using EM waves. However, I am unable to understand how to explain how polarization filters work when we use the concept of photon spins. Can someone help me with that?
 
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There's a really good video over at 3Blue1Brown that explains the quantum mechanics of photons passing through polarization filters:



They don't mention it, but when light is circularly polarized, each photon has a spin angular momentum of ##+\hbar## or ##-\hbar##, depending on whether the light is left or right circularly polarized.
 
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Be careful! A photon has no spin in the usual sense. Massless quanta have to be treated separately from massive ones. That's why in standard QFT massless particles have only 0 (for scalar and pseudo scalar fields) or 2 (for fields with spin ##\geq 1/2##) spin-like degrees of freedom (which most intuitively can be chosen in terms of the single-free-particle momentum-helicity basis ##|\vec{p},h \rangle## with ##h=\pm s## and ##\vec{p}## with the dispersion relation ##p \cdot p=0##, i.e., ##E=|\vec{p}|##).

For a first qualitative explanation of polaroids (absorptive polarization filters), see

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polarizer
 
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Does that mean, instead of saying that the photon has spin 1, we should instead say that it has helicity 1? I didn't realize that the representations of the Poincare group for massless particles cannot be labeled by spin!
 
Geofleur said:
Does that mean, instead of saying that the photon has spin 1, we should instead say that it has helicity 1? I didn't realize that the representations of the Poincare group for massless particles cannot be labeled by spin!

This is because the little group of a massive particle, SU(2), is different than the little group of a photon, E(2).
 
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Geofleur said:
Does that mean, instead of saying that the photon has spin 1, we should instead say that it has helicity 1? I didn't realize that the representations of the Poincare group for massless particles cannot be labeled by spin!
The usual terminology is to say that the photon has spin 1 (in the sense of ##\vec{J}^2## has the lowest eigenvalue ##1 \cdot (1+1)=2##). Since the photon is massless this implies that there are two spin-degrees in freedom. A natural choice for a single-photon basis is to take momentum eigenvectors and eigenvectors of the angular momentum component in direction of the photon's mopmentum, i.e., the helicity, and this helicity ##h \in \{-1,1\}##.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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