bhobba said:
However he may have something slightly different in mind but is not spelling it out. He states:
'That phenomenon must be taken into account to resolve the measurement problem, he said. That means with Schrodinger's cat, the cat is no longer predicted to be both dead and alive. It is instead dead if the nucleus decays, and alive if the nucleus does not decay, just as one would expect.'
There are some interpretations like the transactional interpretation and its variants that suggest its an influence traveling back in time from the observing apparatus.
Thanks
Bill
Hm, taking the following at face value: "[the cat is] dead if the nucleus decays, and alive if the nucleus does not decay", this seems rather like what Everett started out from, the realization that the quantum state has a propositional content that is only definite relative to some reference; i.e. the cat's state is only definite relative to the nucleus having some definite state. The problem is, of course, that the quantum state then does not contain any information about which one of the alternatives is definite.
Today, most people believe that Everett had something like the 'many worlds' view in mind, i.e. that each outcome in some sense 'occurs' in a different world, or that the world splits in two after such a measurement. But some, like Tim Maudlin, believe he was trying to do something more subtle, instead considering the nature of facts to be fundamentally relational, like for instance tensed facts---'it is raining today'---depend on the specification of a value of 'today' for determining their truth.
Besides, if he were trying to do something transactional, I should think that Ruth Kastner would have been far more happy with his article than she seems to be!
bhobba said:
I want to add the above doesn't disprove it either. Its basically philosophical mumbo jumbo (by which I mean a play on words) trying to assert that because to make decoherence work as explaining the measurement problem the simplest and easiest assumption is that observationally equivalent systems are equivalent. You are not using observation to explain observation, you are saying because observation can't tell a difference there is no difference.
And the claim that its wrong because you are contradicting an initial assumption its in a pure state is incorrect. The system, environment, and observational apparatus start out in a pure state and by unitary evolution must remain in a pure state but because they have become entangled, by the phenomena of tracing over the environment, the observational apparatus and system are now an improper mixed state. This is the key point - no contradiction.
Well, I guess most people would hold the contradiction coming in at a later point. Say you have a Bell state distributed to two parties Alice and Bob, i.e.
|\Phi^+\rangle_{AB}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(|0_A0_B\rangle+|1_A1_B\rangle),
then both would justifiably consider their 'local state' to be the improper mixture
\rho_A=\rho_B=\frac{1}{2}|0\rangle\langle 0|+\frac{1}{2}|1\rangle\langle 1|.
Attaching now an epistemic interpretation to these states, both would believe that their system
really is in either the state |0\rangle or |1\rangle. But this straightforwarldy entails the belief that the global state
really is either of |00\rangle, |11\rangle, |01\rangle or |10\rangle. But this would be a state that produces different experimental results from the original Bell state, i.e. if they were simply to combine their two photons and perform measurements on the combination, they would invariably observe that they get results that can't be explained by the state being actually in either of the four possible combinations; but from this, they must conclude that their local states couldn't possibly have been in a definite state, either.
You've really got to explain these two things in a consistent manner in order to claim a solution to the measurement problem: 1) local measurements on the Bell state always produce definite outcomes, and 2) 'global' measurements (which can of course be done perfectly locally if one just takes the whole Bell state as a specific state of a four-level quantum system) produce results incompatible with the idea that the system is in some definite state. Hobson's approach really only attacks 1), and thus, just falls short (as far as I can see, at least).
Now, he also makes some noises in the direction of so-called modal interpretations, alleging that they're the same kind of thing that he has in mind. But of course, modal interpretations are in fact very different beasts: there, you suppose that the quantum state really only gives you an overview of possibilities ('modalities'), not the full description of physical reality. The state then has to be augmented by what is actually the case, effectively attaching a certain definite system state to the quantum mechanical state in the manner of a hidden variable.
So your total inventory includes 1) the quantum state, |\psi\rangle=\sum_i c_i |i\rangle, and 2) the 'value state', some concrete state |i\rangle, which represents the actual 'ontic' content of the theory. What the precise value state is depends on the quantum state, hopefully in such a manner as to not be vulnerable to the argument given above; how this works explicitly differs among modal theories, ranging from 'hand-picking' the value state to giving explicit dynamics for it, similar to the velocity field equation in Bohmian mechanics (which in fact can be regarded as a certain kind of modal interpretation in which it is always the value of the position observable that is definite). Different modal interpretations also have different problems: a few have fallen prey to Kochen-Specker type contradictions, while others have the somewhat disheartening feature that the observable definite for the total system may be completely different from the observable definite for some subsystems (which I think may be regarded as a remnant of the improper-mixture problem).