Poisson and binomial distributions, corrupted characters in a file

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around estimating the probability of character corruption in a text file during email transmission, using both Poisson and binomial distributions. The original poster attempts to compare these two approaches to determine the likelihood of transferring the file without errors.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the use of Poisson and binomial distributions to model the number of corrupted characters. The original poster questions the correctness of their Poisson approximation and seeks clarification on the binomial calculation for P(X=0).

Discussion Status

Some participants provide guidance on calculating the binomial probability, while others suggest reviewing the assumptions made in the Poisson approximation. The conversation reflects an exploration of both methods without reaching a definitive conclusion.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the independent nature of character corruption and the specific probabilities involved, as well as the potential confusion between the two statistical models. There is mention of a Wikipedia page for further reference on binomial random variables.

Kate2010
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A text file contains 1000 characters. When the file is sent by email from one machine to another, each character (independent of other characters) has probability 0.001 of being corrupted. Use a poisson random variable to estimate the probability that the file is transferred with no errors. Compare this to the answer you get when modelling the number of errors as a binomial random variable.

Poisson:
Let x be the number of corrupted characters.
E(X) = 0.001 = a
P(X=n) = (0.001^n)(e^-0.001)/(n!)
P(X=0) = e^-0.001

Binomial:
np = 1000 x 0.001 = 1
When I approximate using poisson but with np instead I get e^-1 which is about 0.37.

This doesn't seem right?
 
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Show us your calculation of P(X = 0) for the binomial case.
 
I used poisson but approximated lambda as np, so ((np)^k)(e^-np)/k! where np = 1000x0.001 = 1 and k = 0, so we get (1^0)(e^-1)/0! = e^-1.

I don't know how I could use the proper binomial random variable.
 
I believe you are supposed to assume that X is a binomial r.v., where the probability for a given character being in error is .001. You want P(X=0). See this Wikipedia page for more information.
 
Thanks, when I do it that way I get (1000 choose 0)(0.001^0)(1-0.001)^1000 = 0.3676...
So, is it when I have calculated my poisson RV that I've gone wrong and I should have done this as I was previously trying to approximate binomial?
 
Actually, have just read up some more on Poisson distributions and I know where I've gone wrong. Thanks for all your help!
 

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