Potential between two parallel planes

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on finding the electric potential between two parallel planes located at x=0 and x=L, with boundary conditions defined as Φ(x=L)=Φ₀|sin(ky)| and Φ(x=0)=0. The user initially proposed a solution involving exponential and trigonometric functions but encountered a published solution that utilized a cosine series expansion for |sin(ky)|. The key takeaway is that the Laplace equation is satisfied by each term in the series expansion, leading to the differential equation d²Cₙ/dx²=(2kn)²Cₙ, which is essential for determining the coefficients in the series.

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noamriemer
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Hello ! I have an exam this Wednesday... your help will be appreciated...

There are two types of questions I can't figure out how to answer...
the first is this one:

Find the potential between two parallel planes. The first is in x=0, the second in x=L.
[itex]\Phi(x=L)=\Phi_0 |sin(ky)|[/itex]
and
[itex]\Phi (x=0)=0[/itex]

What I thought I should do is look for a solution of the sort:

[itex]X(x)=Ae^{\sqrt{k^2+l^2}}+Be^{-\sqrt{k^2+l^2}}[/itex]
[itex]Y(y)=Csin(ky)+Dcos(ky)[/itex]
[itex]Z(z)=Esin(lz)+Fcos(lz)[/itex]

Then, I should start checking which of the terms should vanish.

But when I looked at the published solution, it was completely different:

[itex]|sin ky|=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{A_ncos(2kny)}[/itex]

[itex]\rightarrow |sin(ky)|=\frac{2}{\pi}+\sum{\frac{4}{\pi(1-4n^2)}}cos(2kny)[/itex]

So now we seek a solution for Laplas eq. this way:

[itex]\Phi(x,y)=C_0x+\sum_{n=1}^\infty{C_n(x)cos(2kny)}[/itex]
and:
[itex]\frac{d^2}{dx^2}C_n =(2kn)^2C_n[/itex]

I don't understand this solution at all.
Why should one expand this function, |sin(ky)| ?
and what is the last equation:
[itex]\frac{d^2}{dx^2}C_n =(2kn)^2C_n[/itex]

Thank you so much!
 
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noamriemer said:
Hello ! I have an exam this Wednesday... your help will be appreciated...

There are two types of questions I can't figure out how to answer...
the first is this one:

Find the potential between two parallel planes. The first is in x=0, the second in x=L.
[itex]\Phi(x=L)=\Phi_0 |sin(ky)|[/itex]
and
[itex]\Phi (x=0)=0[/itex]

What I thought I should do is look for a solution of the sort:

[itex]X(x)=Ae^{\sqrt{k^2+l^2}}+Be^{-\sqrt{k^2+l^2}}[/itex]
[itex]Y(y)=Csin(ky)+Dcos(ky)[/itex]
[itex]Z(z)=Esin(lz)+Fcos(lz)[/itex]

Then, I should start checking which of the terms should vanish.
That isn't the most general solution to Laplace's equation (which with your factorization reverts to: [itex]X^{''}/X + Y^{''}/Y + Z^{''}/Z = 0[/itex]:
[itex]X'' = aX[/itex], [itex]Y''=bY[/itex], [itex]Z''=cZ[/itex], [itex]a+b+c=0[/itex].
Your set of solutions doesn't cover the case where say [itex]a=0, b+c=0[/itex]. You can try to enumerate every combination of cases but it is better to start with your boundary conditions for some guidance. You see that [itex]Y(y)[/tex] is going to be non-trivial and start there.<br /> <br /> It looks like the published solution simply expresses the expansion of Y solutions using coefficients which are functions of the other independent variable(s) and re-applies the Laplace equation.<br /> <blockquote data-attributes="" data-quote="" data-source="" class="bbCodeBlock bbCodeBlock--expandable bbCodeBlock--quote js-expandWatch"> <div class="bbCodeBlock-content"> <div class="bbCodeBlock-expandContent js-expandContent "> But when I looked at the published solution, it was completely different: <br /> <br /> [itex]|sin ky|=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{A_ncos(2kny)}[/itex]<br /> <br /> [itex]\rightarrow |sin(ky)|=\frac{2}{\pi}+\sum{\frac{4}{\pi(1-4n^2)}}cos(2kny)[/itex]<br /> <br /> So now we seek a solution for Laplas eq. this way:<br /> <br /> [itex]\Phi(x,y)=C_0x+\sum_{n=1}^\infty{C_n(x)cos(2kny)}[/itex]<br /> and:<br /> [itex]\frac{d^2}{dx^2}C_n =(2kn)^2C_n[/itex]<br /> <br /> I don't understand this solution at all. <br /> Why should one expand this function, |sin(ky)| ?<br /> and what is the last equation: <br /> [itex]\frac{d^2}{dx^2}C_n =(2kn)^2C_n[/itex]<br /> <br /> Thank you so much! </div> </div> </blockquote>Firstly since the boundary conditions and original equation are symmetric under z translation the solution is independent of z.<br /> <br /> The text is expanding solutions of [itex]Y^{''}=bY[/itex] in terms of the cosine expansion of the boundary condition (using the fact that it is an even function of y and independent of z). (One might also have tried a hyperbolic cosine expansion if the boundary condition where even and asymptotically exponential. Cosh is the even component of exp.)<br /> <br /> By the linearity of Lap.Eqn. Each term in the expansion [itex]\Phi(x,y) = C_0(x) + C_1(x)\cos(2ky) + \cdots[/itex], must independently satisfy Laplace's eqn.<br /> <br /> You get that last equation for all terms even the first term where n=0 which is the exceptional case I mentioned above.<br /> <br /> Matching your attempt:<br /> [itex]\Phi(x,y) = \sum_{some\,a,b} X_a(x)Y_b(y),\quad a+b=0[/tex]<br /> [itex]=\sum_n C_n(x)\cos(2kny)[/itex]<br /> with [itex]b = -(2kn)^2[/itex] and so [itex]a = (2kn)^2[/itex].[/itex][/itex]
 
Thank you for the detailed answer!
 

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