- #1
jason12345
- 109
- 0
Suppose you have a line charge Q along the x-axis from +a to -a. Simple integration should give the potential at any point x as:
phi(x) = 1/(4pi epsilon) Q/L loge((x+a)/(x-a))
= 1/(4pi epsilon) Q/L loge((x+xdx)/(x-xdx))
= 1/(4pi epsilon) Q/L loge((1+dx)/(1-dx))
So there's no longer any x dependance?
I now doubt that the expression is right, even though it seems to be a standard result. Perhaps I've missed out the integration constant
phi(x) = 1/(4pi epsilon) Q/L loge((x+a)/(x-a))
= 1/(4pi epsilon) Q/L loge((x+xdx)/(x-xdx))
= 1/(4pi epsilon) Q/L loge((1+dx)/(1-dx))
So there's no longer any x dependance?
I now doubt that the expression is right, even though it seems to be a standard result. Perhaps I've missed out the integration constant