I Precession of a spherical top in orbit around a rotating star

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The discussion focuses on the Lagrangian formulation for a spherical top in orbit around a rotating star, referencing L&L's problem solution. The Lagrangian is expressed as a sum of kinetic and potential energy terms, with specific deviations accounted for in the first and second approximations. The first deviation arises from gravitational interactions, while the second deviation is intended to incorporate the star's rotation. The participants express confusion about deriving the second deviation using the equation for angular momentum and its relation to the Lagrangian. Clarification is sought on how to equate different integral forms related to the system's dynamics.
etotheipi
Looking at L&L's solution to problem four of section §106. Lagrangian for a system of particles:\begin{align*}
L = &\sum_a \frac{m_a' v_a^2}{2} \left( 1 + 3\sum_{b}' \frac{km_b}{c^2 r_{ab}} \right) + \sum_a \frac{m_a v_a^4}{8c^2} + \sum_a \sum_b' \frac{km_a m_b}{2r_{ab}} \\

&- \sum_a \sum_b' \frac{km_a m_b}{4c^2 r_{ab}} \left[ 7 \mathbf{v}_a \cdot \mathbf{v}_b +(\mathbf{v}_a \cdot \mathbf{n}_{ab})(\mathbf{v}_b \cdot \mathbf{n}_{ab}) \right] - \sum_a \sum_b' \sum_c' \frac{k^2 m_a m_b m_c}{2c^2 r_{ab} r_{ac}}\end{align*}I think in the first approximation L&L are writing ##L = L_0 + \delta^{(1)}L + \delta^{(2)} L## with ##L_0 = \sum_a \frac{m_a v_a^2}{2}## and the first deviation ##\delta^{(1)}L## is arising from the term ##\sum_a \frac{m_a' v_a^2}{2} \sum_{b}' \frac{3km_b}{c^2 r_{ab}}##, where I guess they were considering something like\begin{align*}

\sum_{a \in \mathrm{top}} \sum_{b \in \mathrm{star}} \frac{3km_a m_b(\mathbf{V} + \boldsymbol{\omega} \times \mathbf{r})^2}{2c^2 r_{ab} } &\overset{\mathrm{continuum}}{\longrightarrow} \frac{3km'}{2c^2} \int_{\mathrm{top}} \frac{2}{R(\mathbf{r}')}(\mathbf{V} \cdot \boldsymbol{\omega} \times \mathbf{r}) dm\end{align*}having dropped the ##V^2## and neglecting anything in ##\omega^2##, also ##m'## is the mass of the star. It simplifies writing ##\int_{\mathrm{top}} x_i x_j dm = \frac{1}{2} I \delta_{ij}##. I don't know which term they used to write ##\delta^{(2)} L##; this second deviation is supposed to account for the rotation of the star; they say you can make use of the equation$$h_{03} = \frac{2kM'}{Rc^2} \sin^2{\theta}$$How do you use this? You're supposed to get$$\delta^{(2)} L = \frac{2k}{c^2} \int_{\mathrm{top}} \frac{\mathbf{M}' \cdot (\boldsymbol{\omega} \times \mathbf{r}) \times \mathbf{R}}{R^3} dm$$here ##\mathbf{M}'## is the angular momentum of the star. How do you arrive at this given the formula for ##h_{03}##? Very lost.
 
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I wonder if it could be$$\delta^{(2)} L = -c \int h_{03} v(\mathbf{r}')^3 dm = - \frac{2k}{c} \int_{\mathrm{top}} \frac{M' v(\mathbf{r})^3 \sin^2{\theta}}{R} dm = \int_{\mathrm{top}} \frac{M' (\boldsymbol{\omega} \times \mathbf{r})^3 \sin^2{\theta}}{R} dm$$but given ##\mathbf{M}' \cdot (\boldsymbol{\omega} \times \mathbf{r}) \times \mathbf{R} = - \mathbf{M}' \cdot \mathbf{R} \times (\boldsymbol{\omega} \times \mathbf{r}) =-(\boldsymbol{\omega} \cdot \mathbf{M}')(\mathbf{R} \cdot \mathbf{r}) + (\boldsymbol{\omega} \cdot \mathbf{R})( \mathbf{r} \cdot \mathbf{M}')## it's not so clear how to show the two integrals are the same? Maybe there's some approximations being made?
 
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In Birkhoff’s theorem, doesn’t assuming we can use r (defined as circumference divided by ## 2 \pi ## for any given sphere) as a coordinate across the spacetime implicitly assume that the spheres must always be getting bigger in some specific direction? Is there a version of the proof that doesn’t have this limitation? I’m thinking about if we made a similar move on 2-dimensional manifolds that ought to exhibit infinite order rotational symmetry. A cylinder would clearly fit, but if we...