Probability of finding a particle in a box

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the probability of finding a particle in a box, specifically using the wave function ψn(x) = (2/L)^(1/2)sin(nπx/L). The participant calculated probabilities for n=1, n=2, and n=3, yielding results of approximately 0.818, 0.5, and 0.430, respectively. A key point of contention is the interpretation of the limit as n approaches infinity, where the expectation is to demonstrate that the probability converges to 0.5, aligning with classical mechanics. The suggestion to evaluate the integral for general n is crucial for understanding this limit.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly wave functions.
  • Familiarity with integration techniques in calculus.
  • Knowledge of the concept of probability density functions.
  • Experience with limits and convergence in mathematical analysis.
NEXT STEPS
  • Evaluate the integral of ψn(x) for general n to analyze the limit as n approaches infinity.
  • Study the concept of probability density in quantum mechanics to understand its implications.
  • Explore graphical representations of wave functions for different n values to visualize convergence.
  • Review classical mechanics principles to compare quantum results with classical expectations.
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Students and educators in quantum mechanics, physicists analyzing wave functions, and anyone interested in the mathematical foundations of probability in quantum systems.

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Homework Statement



Consider ψ (x) for a particle in a box:

ψn(x) = (2/L)1/2sin(n∏x/L)

Calculate the probability of finding the particle in the middle half of the box (i.e., L/4 ≤ x ≤ 3L/4). Also, using this solution show that as ''n'' goes to infinity you get the classical solution of 0.5.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I integrated and figured out the probability for n=1,2,3. For n=1 I got 1/2 + 1/∏ which is about 0.818. For n = 1 I got 1/2 and for n=3, I got 0.430.

I don't understand where the problem asks "Also, using this solution show that as ''n'' goes to infinity you get the classical solution of 0.5." From my calculations, as n goes to infinity, it does not approach a value of 0.5.
 
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It will help if you can evaluate the integral for a general (unspecified) values of n and then look at the result as n goes to infinity.

From the 3 values you have obtained, you can't tell whether or not the probability is approaching any specific value as n gets large. (By the way, I agree with your answers for n = 1 and 2, but not for n = 3.)
 
Drawing a picture of some of the solutions might give you some insight into what kind of answer you are looking for.
 

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