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Abdu Ewais

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since it is known that ##\vec{A_\perp} = -{mG \over R^2}## why did the professor write it as ##\vec{A_\perp} = {- R G \rho \over 3}## for perfect sphere with perfect mass distribution ? Shouldn't it be ##\vec{A_\perp} = -{4 \over 3} \pi R G \rho##? I need help thanks.

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