- #1

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Can anybody give proof of the above relationship algebraically?I have not seen the derivation of it.

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- Thread starter Raghav Gupta
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- #1

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Can anybody give proof of the above relationship algebraically?I have not seen the derivation of it.

- #2

DrDu

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- #3

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I was in a hurry and when one is not familiar with the derivation ,often one messes the formula.

Yeah the correct relationship is Mode=3Median-2Mean.What is the derivation for it?

- #4

DrDu

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I suppose you can get it using an Edgeworth expansion including the skewness and the curtosis:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Edgeworth_series

- #5

DrDu

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http://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/3787/empirical-relationship-between-mean-median-and-mode

- #6

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http://statistics.about.com/od/Desc...tionship-Between-The-Mean-Median-And-Mode.htm

Well then what's the derivation for empirical formula?

- #7

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Oh sorry we posted at the same time just seconds delay.Can you give the proof using algebraic manipulation other than using variance or standard deviation?

http://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/3787/empirical-relationship-between-mean-median-and-mode

- #8

DrDu

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- #9

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I have seen that link in Mathematics stack exchange before and I did't get it that's why I have posted it here.When you first posted that it is not a valid relationship I thought that modification in statistic may have came for this formula.

- #10

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No problem if you don't know but if you can help for some initial steps It would help me.

- #11

statdad

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