Proof Help: If a and b are Real Numbers, a^2 + b^2 ≥ 2ab

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The discussion centers on proving the inequality a^2 + b^2 ≥ 2ab for real numbers a and b. The proof correctly utilizes the expression (a-b)^2 ≥ 0, leading to the conclusion that a^2 + b^2 - 2ab ≥ 0. Participants clarify that the assumption a, b ≥ 0 is unnecessary, as the proof must hold for all real numbers. There is an emphasis on the importance of not limiting the proof to non-negative values, as the goal is to establish the inequality universally. The conversation ultimately reinforces the validity of the proof while addressing misconceptions about the conditions under which it applies.
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If a and b are real numbers, then a^2 + b^2 >= 2 a b
Proof:
if a>=0 and b>=0
then a-b>=0
(a-b)^2>=0
a^2 + b^2 -2ab >=0
a^2 + b^2 >= 2ab
Q.E.D.

at http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20081104233240AApFu9W

someone has proved more or less similar question, but at

(a + b)^2 > 0
a^2 + 2ab + b^2 > 0
a^2 + b^2 ≥ 2ab

when 2ab goes from L.H.S. to R.H.S then it should be -2ab , am I correct?
 
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Yes, and that's why you should use ##(a-b)^2## instead of ##(a+b)^2## to prove this result.

You should remove the first two lines from the first proof. Do you see why?
 
Fredrik said:
Yes, and that's why you should use ##(a-b)^2## instead of ##(a+b)^2## to prove this result.

You should remove the first two lines from the first proof. Do you see why?

Because a and b could be equal, right?

If I am correct then it should be:

Proof:
If a-b>=0
then (a-b)^2 >= 0
a^2 + b^2 - 2ab >= 0
implies a^2 + b^2 >= 2ab
Q.E.D.

But if a and b could be equal to each other then ">=" justifies that so the proof in my original post remains correct, isn't?
 
woundedtiger4 said:
If a and b are real numbers, then a^2 + b^2 >= 2 a b
Proof:
if a>=0 and b>=0
then a-b>=0
This is not true. Given that a and b are arbitrary real numbers, a- b can be any number, positive, negative, or 0.
However, since a square of a real number is never negative, the next step is correct:

(a-b)^2>=0
a^2 + b^2 -2ab >=0
a^2 + b^2 >= 2ab
Q.E.D.

at http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20081104233240AApFu9W

someone has proved more or less similar question, but at

(a + b)^2 > 0
If a and b are not allowed to be equal, yes. otherwise (a+ b)^2>= 0 as you had before.

a^2 + 2ab + b^2 > 0
a^2 + b^2 ≥ 2ab

when 2ab goes from L.H.S. to R.H.S then it should be -2ab , am I correct?
Yes, but since a and b can be any real numbers, either 2ab< 0, in which case, since a^2+ b^2 is not negative, it is a trivial statement, or 2ab> 0 so that the sign doesn't matter.
 
HallsofIvy said:
This is not true.

Ahaan i see your point.

Proof:
If a-b >=0
then (a-b)^2 >=0
a^2 +b^2 -2ab >=0
a^2 + b^2 >=2ab
Q.E.D.

What do you say?
 
woundedtiger4 said:
Ahaan i see your point.

Proof:
If a-b >=0
then (a-b)^2 >=0
a^2 +b^2 -2ab >=0
a^2 + b^2 >=2ab
Q.E.D.

What do you say?


You seem to be stuck on this idea of a-b ≥ 0 that is completely unnecessary. Compare your proof to the following:

If the sky is blue
then (a-b)^2 >=0
a^2 +b^2 -2ab >=0
a^2 + b^2 >=2ab
 
Office_Shredder said:
You seem to be stuck on this idea of a-b ≥ 0 that is completely unnecessary. Compare your proof to the following:

If the sky is blue
then (a-b)^2 >=0
a^2 +b^2 -2ab >=0
a^2 + b^2 >=2ab

Ohh got it. It says "a and b are real numbers".

Proof:
If (a-b)^2 >=0
then a^2 + b^2 >=0
Q.E.D.

Right?
 
woundedtiger4 said:
Because a and b could be equal, right?
No, the problem is that if the proof relies on the assumption that ##a,b\geq 0##, then the result will only be valid for such values of ##a## and ##b##

Don't forget that the statement you want to prove is that "For all real numbers ##a## and ##b##, we have ##a^2+b^2\geq 2ab##. It's for all real numbers, not just for the non-negative ones.


woundedtiger4 said:
Ohh got it. It says "a and b are real numbers".

Proof:
If (a-b)^2 >=0
then a^2 + b^2 >=0
Q.E.D.

Right?
What makes you think that ##(a-b)^2## may be less than 0, or that it needs to be greater than or equal to zero to ensure that ##a^2+b^2\geq 0##?
 
Fredrik said:
No, the problem is that if the proof relies on the assumption that ##a,b\geq 0##, then the result will only be valid for such values of ##a## and ##b##

Proof:
If a,b>=0
then (a-b)^2 >=0
a^2 +b^2 -2ab >= 0
a^2 + b^2 >= 2ab
QED

I don't understand that how come (a+b)^2 >=0 can lead us to prove that a^2 + b^2 >= 2ab because (a+b)^2 >= 0 will lead us to the resut a^2 +b^2 >= -2ab , please explain to me in a simple language becaueee I am a beginner.

PS. I want to prove this thm by using direct proof's if & then technique.

Thanks in advance.
 
  • #10
Can you give me some real numbers such that ##(a-b)^2<0##?
 
  • #11
Fredrik said:
No, the problem is that if the proof relies on the assumption that ##a,b\geq 0##, then the result will only be valid for such values of ##a## and ##b##
I didn't express myself very clearly here. I meant that if you assume that ##a,b\geq 0## and then find that ##a^2+b^2\geq 2ab##, you will only have proved that ##a^2+b^2\geq 2ab## for all non-negative real numbers ##a## and ##b##.

But your goal was to prove that ##a^2+b^2\geq 2ab## for all real numbers ##a## and ##b##.
 
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