Misswfish
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Suppose f is continuous function on [a,b] such that for each continuous function g, \int(fg)dj = 0 (Note: integral is from a to b) , then f(x) = 0 for each x in [a,b].
I know that I should use the theorem If is continuous on [a,b], f(x)\geq0 for each x in [a,b] and theree is a number p i n [a,b] such that f(p) > 0, THen \intf dj > 0.
I just don't understand how they tie together.
I know that I should use the theorem If is continuous on [a,b], f(x)\geq0 for each x in [a,b] and theree is a number p i n [a,b] such that f(p) > 0, THen \intf dj > 0.
I just don't understand how they tie together.