Feb 13, 2010 #1 eric123 Messages 4 Reaction score 0 Does anyone know how to proof the following: a^(log(b))=b^(log(a)) for a,b>0
Feb 13, 2010 #2 Mark44 Mentor Insights Author Messages 38,138 Reaction score 10,719 Let x = alog b and y = blog a Using the rules of logarithms, show that log x = log y, hence that alog b = blog a
Let x = alog b and y = blog a Using the rules of logarithms, show that log x = log y, hence that alog b = blog a