durant said:
Sorry, but I simply don't understand this. What appearence?
I agree that "appears" is not a very good word to describe time dilation, but unfortunately we don't have a better one. The best way to describe it is with math and/or spacetime diagrams, but you have said you're not very familiar with them.
Let me try rephrasing what I said. Consider the scenario I described, with your foot moving relative to your head. Your head receives light signals from your foot; since your foot is at a constant distance from your head (as measured in your head's rest frame), the arrival time of those light signals at your head can be adjusted for the light-travel time (six nanoseconds) to obtain the times at which the signals were emitted from your foot. Suppose the signals are emitted, according to a clock moving with your foot, once per nanosecond. Then the time between the signals, according to a clock moving with your head, will be *greater* than one nanosecond. This is what is normally referred to as "time dilation".
durant said:
And what do you mean by less accumulation of proper time.
The elapsed proper time for your foot, between events A' and B', is less than the elapsed proper time for your head, between events A'' and B''.
durant said:
If time 'flows' locally at the same rate, and simply varies in different inertial frames with respect to that object, then comparing the two worldines we may conclude that at some point they accumulated the same amount of proper time.
Between which pairs of events? And why would you choose those particular pairs of events? Sure, I can find some pair of events on any worldline I like that have a particular amount of proper time elapsed between them, but what does that prove?
For example, in the scenario I described, as I just noted, the proper time for your foot, between events A' and B', is less than the proper time for your head, between events A'' and B''. But I can find *some* event, C', on your foot's worldline, which will be to the future of B', such that the proper time for your foot between events A' and C' is the same as the proper time for your head between events A" and B''. But what does that prove? Why should anyone care? (Or, I could find some event C'' on your head's worldline, which will be to the past of B'', such that the proper time for your head between events A'' and C'' is the same as the proper time for your foot between events A' and B'. Again, what does that prove?)
durant said:
This is perhaps the most confusing thing that I've red on this thread. Isn't the proper time of both worldines invariant?
Once again, you are missing the key point, which I'm now going to emphasize:
proper time is only well-defined between a specific pair of events on a specific worldline. In so far as proper time is invariant, it is only invariant once it's been defined that way. In other words, if you specify a worldline, and a pair of events on that worldline, then the proper time along that worldline between those two events is invariant: all observers will agree on it, regardless of their state of motion. But that does
not mean that the proper time will be the same along a different worldline, or between a different pair of events.
I suggest that, rather than thinking about proper time in general terms, you force yourself to specify, every time you use the term "proper time", which worldline, and which pair of events on that worldline, you are using to define it. For example, in the scenario I specified, as I said above, the proper time along your foot's worldline, between events A' and B', is less than the proper time along your head's worldline, between events A" and B''. Both of these proper times are invariants--all observers agree on them. But they are not the same, because the worldlines and the pairs of events are different.