Prove a Statement about the Line Integral of a Vector Field

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a statement related to the line integral of a vector field, specifically the vector field \(\vec{v} = \frac{-y\hat{x} + x\hat{y}}{x^2+y^2}\). Participants are tasked with showing that \(\oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = 2\pi\oint dl\) for any closed path.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of the curl of the vector field and its implications for applying Stokes' Theorem. There is questioning of whether the integral can be zero and what that means in the context of the problem. Some participants explore the concept of winding numbers and their relationship to the integral.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different interpretations of the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the application of Stokes' Theorem and the significance of the winding number, but no consensus has been reached on how to approach the proof for loops encircling the origin.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the vector field is singular at the origin, which affects the application of Stokes' Theorem. There is also mention of the potential confusion in the problem statement provided by the professor.

Izzhov
Messages
120
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Given the vector field \vec{v} = (-y\hat{x} + x\hat{y})/(x^2+y^2)
Show that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = 2\pi\oint dl for any closed path, where dl is the line integral around the path.

Homework Equations


Stokes' Theorem: \oint_{\delta R} \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = \int_R \vec{dA}\cdot(\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{v})

The Attempt at a Solution


I tried finding the curl of v, and got that the x and y components were zero, and the z component is \frac{\delta}{\delta x}(x/(x^2+y^2)) + \frac{\delta}{\delta y}(y/(x^2+y^2)), which becomes (y^2-x^2+x^2-y^2)/(x^2+y^2)^2, which is also zero. But this can't be right, because that would imply that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = \int \vec{dA}\cdot0 = 0 by Stokes' Theorem, which would mean the thing I'm trying to show is false, since 2\pi\oint dl is not always zero.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Izzhov said:

Homework Statement


Given the vector field \vec{v} = (-y\hat{x} + x\hat{y})/(x^2+y^2)
Show that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = 2\pi\oint dl for any closed path, where dl is the line integral around the path.


Homework Equations


Stokes' Theorem: \oint_{\delta R} \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = \int_R \vec{dA}\cdot(\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{v})


The Attempt at a Solution


I tried finding the curl of v, and got that the x and y components were zero, and the z component is \frac{\delta}{\delta x}(x/(x^2+y^2)) + \frac{\delta}{\delta y}(y/(x^2+y^2)), which becomes (y^2-x^2+x^2-y^2)/(x^2+y^2)^2, which is also zero. But this can't be right, because that would imply that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} = \int \vec{dA}\cdot0 = 0 by Stokes' Theorem, which would mean the thing I'm trying to show is false, since 2\pi\oint dl is not always zero.
Could it be that 2\pi\oint dl is always zero ?
 
SammyS said:
Could it be that 2\pi\oint dl is always zero ?
I don't think it could, because \oint dl represents the length of the line being integrated over, doesn't it? And there's no reason why the length of a closed loop must always be zero.
 
Izzhov said:
I don't think it could, because \oint dl represents the length of the line being integrated over, doesn't it? And there's no reason why the length of a closed loop must always be zero.

Yes, it does. Your Stoke's theorem argument doesn't apply to curves that wind around the origin since the vector field is singular at the origin. But it does to curves that don't. And they don't all have arclength 0. It think the question got garbled somehow. I think your vector integral really computes a winding number around the origin. It's not related to arclength.
 
What exactly do you mean by a "winding number around the origin?"
 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Winding_number Your vector integral is zero if the curve doesn't contain the origin. As you checked with Stokes's theorem. It's 2pi if the curve winds once around the origin counterclockwise. It's -2pi if it winds once clockwise. Etc. Look down in the wikipedia reference to the 'Differential Geometry' section. You'll see your vector integral. I think the question they gave you is messed up.
 
I played around with the vector field and found that it does seem to hold that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} is equal to 2*pi times the winding number of any given closed loop, so I'm going to assume that's what my professor wanted me to prove. I can prove this is true when the winding number is zero by the divergence theorem (as you stated), but how do I go about proving it when the loop circles around the origin?
 
Izzhov said:
I played around with the vector field and found that it does seem to hold that \oint \vec{dl}\cdot\vec{v} is equal to 2*pi times the winding number of any given closed loop, so I'm going to assume that's what my professor wanted me to prove. I can prove this is true when the winding number is zero by the divergence theorem (as you stated), but how do I go about proving it when the loop circles around the origin?

You take a contour where the winding number is easy to compute. Say a contour along the unit circle. Now take your hard to compute contour. Draw a segment connecting the two contours. Figure out how you can run around the two contours using the segment bridging them and only enclose a region that does not contain the origin.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
20
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K