Lazerlike42
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Homework Statement
Let f(x)= { 1 if x=\frac{1}{n} for some n\in the natural numbers,
or 0 otherwise}
Prove f is integrable on [0,1], and evaluate the integral.
Homework Equations
This is using Riemann Integrability. I know that the method of providing the solution is supposed to be by application of the following theorem:
"A bounded function f is integrable on [a,b] if and only if \forall \epsilon > 0, there is a partition P_{\epsilon} of [a,b] where U(f, P_{\epsilon}) - L(f,P_{\epsilon} < \epsilon"
U(P_{\epsilon}) and L(P_{\epsilon}) are of course the upper and lower sums.
The Attempt at a Solution
I know that L(P_{\epsilon}) is 0 everywhere, because for any sub-interval no matter how small there is some value of x where x /= \frac{1}{n}. I also know that the integral must equal 0, as the lower and upper sums must be equal in an integrable function.
What I am supposed to do is to find some partition of [a,b] where the upper sum is less than epsilon, but I can't figure out how to do that.
Given an epsilon, if I select some x0 where x0=\frac{1}{m} for some m and x0 < \epsilon, then it follows that the upper sum over [0,x0] < \epsilon. The issue is then the upper sum on [x0, 1].
I have also noticed this fact: Suppose my x0=\frac{1}{500}. Then if I move up to \frac{2}{500}, that's actually \frac{1}{250}. Similarly, \frac{4}{500}=\frac{1}{125}, \frac{5}{500}=\frac{1}{100}, and \frac{10}{500}={\frac{1}{50}. That means that between \frac{2}{500} and \frac{1}{50}, there are only 4 values equal to some \frac{1}{n}. The upper sum over that would then be simply 4 * \frac{1}{500}. Somewhere in all of that, I feel like there is a way to partition [x0, 1] so that it's less than a given epsilon, but I can't figure it out.
Thanks in advance.