diorific
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The discussion revolves around proving an integral inequality involving the integral of a function over the interval from 0 to π/2. The specific inequality to be proven is (π^3)/12 ≤ ∫_0^(π/2) (4x^2)/(2-sin(x)) dx ≥ (π^3)/6.
The conversation includes hints and suggestions for approaching the problem, with some participants expressing confusion about the bounding function and the overall direction of their attempts. There is acknowledgment of a potential misunderstanding regarding the inequalities involved, and one participant reports having resolved their issue.
Participants note the challenges of substituting values and the implications of the mean value theorem in the context of the integral. There is also mention of a possible error in the direction of one of the inequalities.
diorific said:I can't get this one. What bounding function. I'm lost...
Millennial said:Don't take the maximum (or the minimum) of the polynomial. By the mean value theorem, there exists C such that
[tex]\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{4x^2}{2-\sin(x)}\,dx=\frac{1}{2-\sin(c)}\int_{0}^{\pi/2}4x^2\,dx[/tex]
and [itex]0\leq c\leq \pi/2[/itex].
Take the integral and maximize/minimize the factor by adjusting C appropriately.