Prove: Mean Value Theorem & Rolle's Theorem | At Most 1 Fixed Point

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that a differentiable function with a constant derivative of 1 has at most one fixed point, where a fixed point is defined as a point where f(a) = a. The discussion references the Mean Value Theorem and Rolle's Theorem as part of the context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to analyze the implications of the derivative being constant and considers the form of the function. They express uncertainty about their reasoning and seek assistance. Another participant introduces a counterexample to challenge the original statement, suggesting that the proposition may be false.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring different interpretations of the problem. Some guidance is being offered through the introduction of counterexamples, and there is a recognition of potential contradictions in the original statement. No consensus has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the definitions of fixed points and the implications of the derivative being equal to one. There is an acknowledgment of the need to consider different cases based on the constant term in the function's expression.

DeltaIceman
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Homework Statement


A number a is called a fixed point if f(a)=a. Prove that if f is a differentiable function with f'(x)=1 for all x then f has at most one fixed point.


Homework Equations


In class we have been using Rolle's Theorem and the Mean Value Theorem.


The Attempt at a Solution


In all honest I wasn't sure where to start but this is what I've come up with so far. Knowing that the slope or f'(x)=1 then the original function must have been something like f(x)= x + k. Considering k as a constant that could exist or could not. Then the function either has no fixed point. Or every point of the function is fixed. Therefore giving us a contradiction in the statement. Meaning that this statement cannot be possible. We worked a couple of these in class and I didn't really know how to approach this problem. What I did kinda makes sense to me although it doesn't seem like this should be the answer. Any help would be appreciated thanks!
 
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Let [itex]x=a[/itex] be a fixed point of [itex]f[/itex]. Then by the definition of "fixed point", [itex]f(a)=a+k=a[/itex]. Consider 2 cases: [itex]k=0[/itex] and [itex]k\neq 0[/itex].
 
Hold on a second...The proposition in the problem statement is false. Let [itex]f(x)=x[/itex]. Then [itex]f'(x)=1[/itex] for all [itex]x[/itex], and every point is a fixed point!
 
Agreed.
 

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