Prove no isomorphism from rationals to reals

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that there is no isomorphism from the set of rational numbers (Q) under addition to the set of real numbers (R) under addition. The original poster presents a formal statement and attempts to explore contradictions arising from properties of isomorphisms.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster considers showing a contradiction related to equal rationals and the behavior of the isomorphism under addition. Other participants suggest examining specific properties of rational and real numbers to highlight differences that could support the proof.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering insights into properties of rational and real numbers. Some guidance has been provided regarding the characteristics that distinguish the two sets, but no consensus or resolution has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on using group theory and properties of numbers in the discussion. The original poster expresses uncertainty about proving certain properties of real numbers, indicating a potential gap in information or understanding that is being explored.

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Homework Statement


Prove that there is no isomorphism, [tex]\phi[/tex], from Q under addition to R under addition


Homework Equations


An isomorphism [tex]\phi[/tex]:Q to R is a bijection such that [tex]\phi[/tex](x + y) = [tex]\phi[/tex](x) + [tex]\phi[/tex](y), where x,y are elements of Q

[tex]\phi[/tex](0) = 0.

[tex]\phi[/tex](-x) = -[tex]\phi[/tex](x)


The Attempt at a Solution


My inclination is to attempt to attempt to show a contradiction from two equal rationals p/q and p'/q' occurs when,

[tex]\phi[/tex](p/q - p'/q') = [tex]\phi[/tex](0) = 0, for p,q integers.

So, [tex]\phi[/tex](p/q) - [tex]\phi[/tex](p'/q') = 0,

However, I cannot arrive at an algebraic contradiction.

Is there a better way to go about this proof, relying only on group theory?
 
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The rationals have the property that for every nonzero x and y there are integers n and m such that n*x+m*y=0 where n and m are nonzero integers. Can you prove that? phi(n*x)=n*phi(x), right? Now find two reals that don't have that property.
 
Last edited:
Hi Dick,

Thank you very much for your help. I feel that I can prove the property of rationals that your described.

However, while I know that there are reals that don't have that property, such as [tex]\pi[/tex] and the sqrt(1), I do not know how to prove that those two numbers do not have that property.

Thanks in advance,
Doug
 
They don't. But let's pick an easier example, suppose phi(x)=1 and phi(y)=sqrt(2). Can you have n*1+m*sqrt(2)=0?
 
No, because that would imply [tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex] = -n/m, i.e. that [tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex] is rational..

Thanks a lot, I really appreciate it.
 

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