Vectors: How to prove the BAC-CAB identity w/o components?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the BAC-CAB identity for vectors without using component expansion. The original poster presents a mathematical statement involving cross and dot products and expresses constraints on their approach due to the level of knowledge regarding advanced methods.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of dotting both sides of the equation with different vectors and explore the relationships between the coefficients in the expression. There is a focus on understanding the linearity of the products involved and how to express one variable in terms of another.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided hints and guidance on manipulating the equations to derive relationships between the coefficients. There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of these relationships, particularly regarding the value of the constant phi and its dependence on the vectors involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the original poster is restricted from using component-based methods, which influences the direction of the discussion. There is also a mention of the need to deduce the value of phi through reference vectors, raising questions about its consistency across different vector choices.

Master1022
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Homework Statement


Prove that $$\bf{ a \times ( b \times c ) = \phi [ b(a \bullet c) - c(a \bullet b) ]} $$

for some constant phi

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


So I have used the unit vectors i, j, and k and found out that phi = 1.

With the main part of the proof, we are not allowed to expand it using components. Also, I am not at the level where we know the tensors or more advanced methods that I have seen elsewhere on the internet- just the basic rules of dot and cross product.

So I know that $$ a \times ( b \times c ) = p c + q b + k(b \times c)$$ for some scalars p,q, and k. I also know that the a x ( b x c) will lie in the plane of bc, so thus k = 0.
$$ \textbf{a} \times ( \textbf{b} \times \textbf{c} ) = p \textbf{c} + q \textbf{b} $$

Our professor then gave the hint of dotting both sides by a and (b x c) separately and going from there.

So when I dotted both sides by a, I got:
$$ 0 = p (\bf{a \bullet c}) + q (\bf{a \bullet b}) $$

Then when I dotted everything by (b x c):
$$ 0 = p (\bf{c \bullet (b \times c)}) + q (\bf{b \bullet (b \times c)}) $$

This is where I don't know what to do, because the second expression goes to 0 = 0 and I cannot really see how to use it.

Any help is greatly appreciated.
 
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Master1022 said:
Then when I dotted everything by (b x c)
You dot from the right on the right hand side of the equation. Perhaps try to do that on the lefthand side too ... o:)

[edit] I'll get some coffee first, sorry
 
BvU said:
You dot from the right on the right hand side of the equation. Perhaps try to do that on the lefthand side too ... :rolleyes:
The inner product is commutative ...

Master1022 said:
This is where I don't know what to do, because the second expression goes to 0 = 0 and I cannot really see how to use it.
This is what allows you to conclude that there is no ##\vec b \times \vec c## component (i.e., ##k = 0##). Since you have already assumed that, it will come out as 0 = 0.

However, your inner product with ##\vec a## is sufficient for the conclusion that ##\vec a \times (\vec b \times \vec c) = \phi[\vec b(\vec a \cdot \vec c) - \vec c (\vec a \cdot \vec b)]##.
 
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Formula ##\boldsymbol a\times( \boldsymbol b\times\boldsymbol c)=\boldsymbol b(\boldsymbol a,\boldsymbol c)-\boldsymbol c(\boldsymbol a,\boldsymbol b)## follows by direct calculation in a Cartesian frame. This calculation may be little bit simplified if you choose the frame such that ##\boldsymbol a=(a,0,0),\quad \boldsymbol b=(b_1,b_2,0)##
 
wrobel said:
Formula ##\boldsymbol a\times( \boldsymbol b\times\boldsymbol c)=\boldsymbol b(\boldsymbol a,\boldsymbol c)-\boldsymbol c(\boldsymbol a,\boldsymbol b)## follows by direct calculation in a Cartesian frame. This calculation may be little bit simplified if you choose the frame such that ##\boldsymbol a=(a,0,0)##
I believe this fails the requirement not to use components as specified in the OP.
Master1022 said:
With the main part of the proof, we are not allowed to expand it using components.
 
Orodruin said:
believe this fails the requirement not to use components as specified in the OP.
oh yes, I missed that. Pain without any gain, I see
 
Orodruin said:
The inner product is commutative ...
However, your inner product with ##\vec a## is sufficient for the conclusion that ##\vec a \times (\vec b \times \vec c) = \phi[\vec b(\vec a \cdot \vec c) - \vec c (\vec a \cdot \vec b)]##.

Thank you for your response! Could you explain what you mean by the above statement- I cannot really understand what you mean.

Thanks.
 
Master1022 said:
Thank you for your response! Could you explain what you mean by the above statement- I cannot really understand what you mean.

Thanks.
Which of the two statements you quoted?
 
Orodruin said:
Which of the two statements you quoted?
The second one
 
  • #10
You have an equation that relates ##p## and ##q##. Use this to express one in terms of the other. This is sufficient to come to the conclusion that you are asked to derive.
 
  • #11
To be more specific, you have
Master1022 said:
So when I dotted both sides by a, I got:
$$ 0 = p (\bf{a \bullet c}) + q (\bf{a \bullet b}) $$
You can solve for either ##p## or ##q## in terms of the other here and insert it into your expression
Master1022 said:
$$ \textbf{a} \times ( \textbf{b} \times \textbf{c} ) = p \textbf{c} + q \textbf{b} $$

wrobel said:
oh yes, I missed that. Pain without any gain, I see
My gym partner assures me that pain is just weakness leaving the body ... :rolleyes:
 
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  • #12
Orodruin said:
To be more specific, you have
You can solve for either ##p## or ##q## in terms of the other here and insert it into your expression

I have ended up with $$ \textbf{a} \times (\textbf{b} \times \textbf{c}) = \frac{p}{(\textbf{a} \bullet \textbf{c})} [\textbf{b}(\textbf{a}\bullet\textbf{c}) - \textbf{c}(\textbf{a}\bullet\textbf{b})]$$

do we just let the $$\frac{p}{(a \bullet c)} = \phi = 1$$

Thanks.
 
  • #13
Master1022 said:
I have ended up with $$ \textbf{a} \times (\textbf{b} \times \textbf{c}) = \frac{p}{(\textbf{a} \bullet \textbf{c})} [\textbf{b}(\textbf{a}\bullet\textbf{c}) - \textbf{c}(\textbf{a}\bullet\textbf{b})]$$

do we just let the $$\frac{p}{(a \bullet c)} = \phi = 1$$
The first part, yes (##\phi = p/(\vec a \cdot \vec c)##). That ##\phi = 1## is something you must deduce by using some reference vectors (such as the basis vectors).
 
  • #14
Orodruin said:
The first part, yes (##\phi = p/(\vec a \cdot \vec c)##). That ##\phi = 1## is something you must deduce by using some reference vectors (such as the basis vectors).
wouldn't that mean for non-basis vectors, phi wouldn't be 1?
 
  • #15
Master1022 said:
wouldn't that mean for non-basis vectors, phi wouldn't be 1?
No. The product is linear in all arguments.
 
  • #16
Orodruin said:
No. The product is linear in all arguments.
That is true... not sure I completely understand why that is, but I have tried it out by setting vectors a, b, and c to random things and they seem to always yield the result that p = (a . c) for the LHS to equal the RHS...

Thanks for all the help!
 
  • #17
Master1022 said:
not sure I completely understand why that is
Why what is? Why the product is linear in all arguments? That follows directly from the cross product being linear in both arguments, i.e., ##\vec a \times (\vec b_1 + \vec b_2) = \vec a \times \vec b_1 + \vec a \times \vec b_2## etc.
 
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