Prove Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 if and only if ad-bc≠0

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the span of two vectors, Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}, equals R^2 if and only if the determinant ad-bc is non-zero. Participants are exploring the implications of linear dependence and the conditions under which the span covers the entire R^2 space.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss two directions of the proof: one assuming Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 and deriving that ad-bc must be non-zero, and the other starting with ad-bc ≠ 0 to show that the span equals R^2. There are questions about the rigor and correctness of these approaches.

Discussion Status

There is ongoing evaluation of the proof's structure, with some participants suggesting that a proof by contradiction could be valid. Multiple interpretations of the proof's direction are being explored, and participants are providing feedback on the clarity and logical flow of the arguments presented.

Contextual Notes

Participants note constraints such as the prohibition against using dimensionality in the proof and the need for clarity in expressing the relationships between the vectors and their span.

peripatein
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Hi,

Homework Statement



I am trying to prove that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 if and only if ad-bc≠0.
I am wondering whether the proof below would be considered rigorous.
NB. I am not permitted to make use of number of dimentions.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



First direction:
Let Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2
Hence, (x,y) = alpha(a,b) + beta (c,d)
Hence, x=a*alpha + c*beta; y=b*alpha + d*beta
Hence, beta(ad-bc) = xb-ya
In order that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 and any vector in R^2 could be represented as a linear combination of ((a,b),(c,d)) there has to be a solution for beta, i.e. ad-bc cannot be zero.

Second direction: I am going to try to show that provided that ad-bc≠0, Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}=R^2.
Supposing ad=bc, then (c,d) = (c/a)(a,b) for a≠0, or (c,d) = (d/b)(a,b) for b≠0.
Hence, {(a,b),(c,d)} is linearly dependent over R^2.
Hence, Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = Sp{(a,b)} whilst a≠0, which is not equal to R^2, OR, Sp{(a,b)} whilst b≠0, which is also not equal to R^2.
Hence, ad-bc≠0 => Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2

Is the above sufficient? Is the proof correct?
 
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I'm assuming Sp{x,y} means span of.
Is invertibility allowed? Since given [x y] invertible, you can show that (0,1) and (1,0) are in the span of {x,y} and thus all combinations of (0,1) and (1,0) are in the span (R2)
 
Invertibility is allowed.
Nevertheless, could you please comment on the proof suggested above?
 
Last edited:
peripatein said:
Hi,

Homework Statement



I am trying to prove that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 if and only if ad-bc≠0.
I am wondering whether the proof below would be considered rigorous.
NB. I am not permitted to make use of number of dimentions.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



First direction:
Let Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2
Hence, (x,y) = alpha(a,b) + beta (c,d)
For the above, you should add something like
"Every vector (x, y) in R2 can be written as a linear combination of (a, b) and (c, d)."
Hence (x, y) = α(a, b) + β(c, d) for some constants α and β.
peripatein said:
Hence, x=a*alpha + c*beta; y=b*alpha + d*beta
Hence, beta(ad-bc) = xb-ya
It might be helpful here to explain what you're doing, which is to multiply the equation for x by b, and multiply the equation for y by a, and then subtracting the two equations.

Then you could solve for β, getting
β = (ax - by)/(ad - bc)
peripatein said:
In order that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 and any vector in R^2 could be represented as a linear combination of ((a,b),(c,d)) there has to be a solution for beta, i.e. ad-bc cannot be zero.

Second direction: I am going to try to show that provided that ad-bc≠0, Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}=R^2.
Supposing ad=bc, then (c,d) = (c/a)(a,b) for a≠0, or (c,d) = (d/b)(a,b) for b≠0.
Hence, {(a,b),(c,d)} is linearly dependent over R^2.
Hence, Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = Sp{(a,b)} whilst a≠0, which is not equal to R^2, OR, Sp{(a,b)} whilst b≠0, which is also not equal to R^2.
Hence, ad-bc≠0 => Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2

Is the above sufficient? Is the proof correct?
 
Thank you very much! Yet what about the second part of the proof?
 
peripatein said:
Second direction: I am going to try to show that provided that ad-bc≠0, Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}=R^2.
Supposing ad=bc, . . .
That's the wrong way to start. You need to assume that ad-bc≠0, not =0.

Actually it might be better to assume that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 and deduce that ad-bc can't have been ≠0 after all, i.e. instead of proving

ad-bc ≠ 0 \Rightarrow Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2

you prove

Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} ≠ R^2 \Rightarrow ad-bc = 0
 
But wouldn't then be exactly like the first direction?
 
Michael Redei said:
That's the wrong way to start. You need to assume that ad-bc≠0, not =0.
Peripatain is doing a proof by contradiction, which is a valid way to do things.
Michael Redei said:
Actually it might be better to assume that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 and deduce that ad-bc can't have been ≠0 after all, i.e. instead of proving

ad-bc ≠ 0 \Rightarrow Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2

you prove

Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} ≠ R^2 \Rightarrow ad-bc = 0
 
  • #10
Mark44 said:
Peripatain is doing a proof by contradiction, which is a valid way to do things.
True, but Peripatain has still proven the same thing twice, once
Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}=R^2 \Rightarrow ad-bc≠0
and then
ad-bc=0 \Rightarrow Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}≠R^2.

Adding "Hence, ad-bc≠0 => Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2" was wrong, this does not follow from either proof.

This situation is like first proving
"if you read good books \Rightarrow you will grow wise"
and then
"if you're not wise \Rightarrow you obviously didn't read good books".

These are not equivalent though, since you could be wise without reading books at all (for instance by listening to advice from others).
 
  • #11
Wouldn't proving it the way you suggested be the same proof as the in first direction?
 
  • #12
Michael Redei said:
True, but Peripatain has still proven the same thing twice, once
Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}=R^2 \Rightarrow ad-bc≠0
and then
ad-bc=0 \Rightarrow Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}≠R^2.

Adding "Hence, ad-bc≠0 => Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2" was wrong, this does not follow from either proof.

This situation is like first proving
"if you read good books \Rightarrow you will grow wise"
and then
"if you're not wise \Rightarrow you obviously didn't read good books".

These are not equivalent though, since you could be wise without reading books at all (for instance by listening to advice from others).

You are correct. I confess that I didn't look at the 2nd part that carefully.

Peripatain, you need to start by assuming that ad - bc ≠ 0, and then showing that the two vectors span R2.
 
Last edited:
  • #13
Assume ad-bc≠0. Then you can solve any equation of the kind you mentioned in the first part, that is anything like β(ad-bc) = xb-ya, no matter how you choose x and y. And that means that every vector (x,y) lies in Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}. Actually the two proofs are very similar, only the wording differs a bit:

(1) R^2=Sp{...} => every point (x,y) fulfils the equations... => β(...) = ... must have a solution => ad-bc≠0.

(2) ad-bc≠0 => β(...)=... always has a solution, no matter how x,y are chosen => any point (x,y) lies in Sp{...} => Sp{...}=R^2.
 
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