MHB Prove That If $a$ Divides Fibonacci $F_n$ For Every $d \geq 1$

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If \( a \geq 2 \) divides the Fibonacci number \( F_n \), it can be proven that \( a^d \) divides \( F_{a^{d-1} n} \) for every \( d \geq 1 \). The proof utilizes the formula \( F_{kn} = \sum_{i=1}^{k} \binom{k}{i} F_i F_n^i F_{n-1}^{k-i} \) along with the property that if \( b \mid c \), then \( F_b \mid F_c \). By setting \( k = a \) and \( n = a^{d-1} n \), it is shown that \( F_{a^{d-1} n}^j \) is a multiple of \( a^{d+1} \) for \( j \geq 2 \), while for \( j = 1 \), \( a^d \) divides \( F_{a^{d-1} n} \). This establishes the required divisibility condition, confirming the original statement.
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let $F_{n}$ the nth fibonacci number. Prove that if $a \geq 2$ divide $F_{n}$ then for every $d \geq 1$ we have $$a^{d}\mid F_{a^{d-1}n}.$$ I think we can use the formula $$F_{kn}= \underset{i=1}{\overset{k}{\sum}} \dbinom{k}{i}F_{i}F_{n}^{i}F_{n-1}^{k-i}$$ and the well know property that if $b \mid c$ then $F_{b} \mid F_{c}$ but I haven't find the solution yet.
 
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Yes, you are right indeed, it follows from $
F_{k\,n} = \sum_{j=1}^k \binom{k}{j} F_j\, F_n^j F_{n-1}^{k-j}
$ and inductive reasoning.

Simply pick $k := a$, $ n := a^{d-1}\,n$ in that equation above, then observe that $F_{a^{d-1}\,n}^j$ is a multiple of $a^{d+1}$ for $j\geq 2$ (use the inductive hypothesis here), while, for $j = 1$, we have $\binom{a}{1} = a$ and $a^{d} | F_{a^{d-1}\,n}$. This proves that if $a^d | F_{a^{d-1}\,n}$, then $a^{d+1} | F_{a^d\,n}$.
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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