MHB Prove That If $a$ Divides Fibonacci $F_n$ For Every $d \geq 1$

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If \( a \geq 2 \) divides the Fibonacci number \( F_n \), it can be proven that \( a^d \) divides \( F_{a^{d-1} n} \) for every \( d \geq 1 \). The proof utilizes the formula \( F_{kn} = \sum_{i=1}^{k} \binom{k}{i} F_i F_n^i F_{n-1}^{k-i} \) along with the property that if \( b \mid c \), then \( F_b \mid F_c \). By setting \( k = a \) and \( n = a^{d-1} n \), it is shown that \( F_{a^{d-1} n}^j \) is a multiple of \( a^{d+1} \) for \( j \geq 2 \), while for \( j = 1 \), \( a^d \) divides \( F_{a^{d-1} n} \). This establishes the required divisibility condition, confirming the original statement.
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let $F_{n}$ the nth fibonacci number. Prove that if $a \geq 2$ divide $F_{n}$ then for every $d \geq 1$ we have $$a^{d}\mid F_{a^{d-1}n}.$$ I think we can use the formula $$F_{kn}= \underset{i=1}{\overset{k}{\sum}} \dbinom{k}{i}F_{i}F_{n}^{i}F_{n-1}^{k-i}$$ and the well know property that if $b \mid c$ then $F_{b} \mid F_{c}$ but I haven't find the solution yet.
 
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Yes, you are right indeed, it follows from $
F_{k\,n} = \sum_{j=1}^k \binom{k}{j} F_j\, F_n^j F_{n-1}^{k-j}
$ and inductive reasoning.

Simply pick $k := a$, $ n := a^{d-1}\,n$ in that equation above, then observe that $F_{a^{d-1}\,n}^j$ is a multiple of $a^{d+1}$ for $j\geq 2$ (use the inductive hypothesis here), while, for $j = 1$, we have $\binom{a}{1} = a$ and $a^{d} | F_{a^{d-1}\,n}$. This proves that if $a^d | F_{a^{d-1}\,n}$, then $a^{d+1} | F_{a^d\,n}$.
 
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