Doom of Doom
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So, the task is to prove: Every infinite set has a infinite countable subset.2. A set X is countable if there exists a bijection \phi: \mathbb{N}\rightarrow X3. So here's what I have:
Let A be an infinite set, and pick some a_{1}\in A. Define S_{n}=\left\{a_{i}, i\in \mathbb{N} \left| 1\leq i \leq n \right\}.
Pick a_{n}\in (A - S_{n-1}) for each n \in \mathbb{N}, n>1.
Let X=\left\{a_{n}|n \in \mathbb{N}\right\}, and let \phi: \mathbb{N}\rightarrow X by \phi(x)=a_{x}.
Then I can show that \phi is a bijection, and thus I am done. Is this good? I'm sure there has to be a better way to do this.
Let A be an infinite set, and pick some a_{1}\in A. Define S_{n}=\left\{a_{i}, i\in \mathbb{N} \left| 1\leq i \leq n \right\}.
Pick a_{n}\in (A - S_{n-1}) for each n \in \mathbb{N}, n>1.
Let X=\left\{a_{n}|n \in \mathbb{N}\right\}, and let \phi: \mathbb{N}\rightarrow X by \phi(x)=a_{x}.
Then I can show that \phi is a bijection, and thus I am done. Is this good? I'm sure there has to be a better way to do this.
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