Proving inequalities with logarithm

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To prove the inequality (n+1)*(log(n+1)-log(n) > 1 for all n > 0, the discussion suggests analyzing the function f(n) = ((n+1)/n)^(n+1) and determining its monotonicity. A more direct approach involves rewriting the logarithmic difference log(n+1) - log(n) using integrals, specifically considering the integral of 1/x. Participants emphasize that understanding the behavior of this integral can lead to the desired inequality without needing to integrate directly. The conversation highlights the importance of recognizing the relationship between logarithmic functions and their integral representations. The overall focus is on finding a clearer path to proving the original inequality.
japplepie
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I need to prove:

(n+1)*(log(n+1)-log(n) > 1 for all n > 0.

I have tried exponentiating it and I got

( (n+1)/n )^(n+1) < e.

And from there I couldn't go any farther, but I do know that it is true by just looking at its graph.

Could anybody help me please?
 
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Correction:
japplepie said:
( (n+1)/n )^(n+1) > e.
As for the solution itself, first find out whether the function
$$
f(n) = \left( \frac{n+1}{n} \right)^{(n+1)}
$$
is a monotonically decreasing or increasing function for positive ##n## (it should be either of them). Then find the asymptote of this function as ##n \rightarrow \infty## in terms of ##e## by making use of the definition of ##e##
$$
e = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left( 1+\frac{1}{n} \right)^n .
$$
 
blue_leaf77 said:
Correction:

As for the solution itself, first find out whether the function
$$
f(n) = \left( \frac{n+1}{n} \right)^{(n+1)}
$$
is a monotonically decreasing or increasing function for positive ##n## (it should be either of them). Then find the asymptote of this function as ##n \rightarrow \infty## in terms of ##e## by making use of the definition of ##e##
$$
e = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left( 1+\frac{1}{n} \right)^n .
$$

I tried that, but to know if it is indeed monotonic I have to show that the selected expression in the term the picture I attached is always < 1 or > 1.

So to proof of the original problem requires a proof for:
n*(log(n+1)-log(n)) < 1

Right now it looks pretty circular.
 

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japplepie said:
I tried that, but to know if it is indeed monotonic I have to show that the selected expression in the term the picture I attached is always < 1 or > 1.
You don't need that, there is a more direct way.

You can also show the initial inequality directly with a clever integral. Can you rewrite ln(n+1)-ln(n) somehow?
 
mfb said:
You don't need that, there is a more direct way.

You can also show the initial inequality directly with a clever integral. Can you rewrite ln(n+1)-ln(n) somehow?
mfb said:
You don't need that, there is a more direct way.

You can also show the initial inequality directly with a clever integral. Can you rewrite ln(n+1)-ln(n) somehow?

Can I have more clues please? I'm getting nowhere plus I'm not that good with integral calculus since we were never taught this in my high school & university.
 
What is ##\int_a^b \frac{dx}{x}##?
 
mfb said:
What is ##\int_a^b \frac{dx}{x}##?
log(x), but I still really can't where I'm supposed to be headed.
 
It is not log(x). The definite integral not depend on x at all, but only on a and b.
 
mfb said:
It is not log(x). The definite integral not depend on x at all, but only on a and b.
log(b)-log(a) ?
 
  • #10
Right, the difference between two logarithms - that's what you have in your original inequality.
 
  • #11
mfb said:
Right, the difference between two logarithms - that's what you have in your original inequality.
I think you're implying that I integrate both sides, but how do I choose the value of a and b?
 
  • #12
No, don't integrate. Replace (log(n+1)-log(n)) with an integral, and then find some way to get the inequality you need.
 

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