John O' Meara
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Prove that [tex]\int_0^a f(x)dx = \int_0^{\frac{a}{2}}[f(x) + f(a-x)]dx \\[/tex]
Hence prove that [tex]\int_0^{\pi} x sin^6x dx = \pi \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} sin^6x dx \\[/tex] and evaluate this integral using the following reduction formula [tex]I_{m,n}= \frac{n-1}{m+n}I_{m,n-2} \\[/tex]
My effort:
[tex]\int_0^a f(x)dx = \int_0^{\frac{a}{2}}f(x)dx + \int_{\frac{a}{2}} f(a-x)dx \\[/tex]. Now
[tex]\int_{\frac{a}{2}}^a f(x)dx = \int_{\frac{a}{2}}^a f(a-x)dx \\[/tex] ... by a theorem. Therefore [tex]\int_0^a f(x)dx = \int_0^{\frac{a}{2}} f(x)dx + \int_{\frac{a}{2}}^a f(a-x)dx \\[/tex]. I need help to change the integral's limits to 0 and a/2 on the second integral on the right, thanks very much.
Hence prove that [tex]\int_0^{\pi} x sin^6x dx = \pi \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} sin^6x dx \\[/tex] and evaluate this integral using the following reduction formula [tex]I_{m,n}= \frac{n-1}{m+n}I_{m,n-2} \\[/tex]
My effort:
[tex]\int_0^a f(x)dx = \int_0^{\frac{a}{2}}f(x)dx + \int_{\frac{a}{2}} f(a-x)dx \\[/tex]. Now
[tex]\int_{\frac{a}{2}}^a f(x)dx = \int_{\frac{a}{2}}^a f(a-x)dx \\[/tex] ... by a theorem. Therefore [tex]\int_0^a f(x)dx = \int_0^{\frac{a}{2}} f(x)dx + \int_{\frac{a}{2}}^a f(a-x)dx \\[/tex]. I need help to change the integral's limits to 0 and a/2 on the second integral on the right, thanks very much.