Proving MVT: |sinx-siny| ≤ |x-y|

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    Mvt Proof
In summary, the conversation discusses a proof for all real values of x and y using the Mean Value Theorem/Rolle's Theorem. The conversation explores the connection between the mean value theorem and the problem, specifically looking at the range of cos. The conversation ends with the suggestion to look up the Mean Value Theorem for further explanation.
  • #1
Mstenbach
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Homework Statement


Prove for all real x and y that
|sinx - siny| <= |x-y|


Homework Equations


It's a question from the Mean Value Theorem/Rolle's Theorem section.


The Attempt at a Solution


Honestly, I've tried. It looks somewhat similar to the triangle inequality (I think?), but truth be told I can't get anywhere with this.



I'd appreciate if anyone could give me a hand and point me in the proper direction. Thanks!
 
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  • #2
Well, what does the mean value theorem say?
 
  • #3
jgens said:
Well, what does the mean value theorem say?

Reading the hotlink I still fail to see the connection with MVT to the problem. Could the "real values x and y" have anything to do with the (a, b) interval?
 
  • #4
Mstenbach said:
Could the "real values x and y" have anything to do with the (a, b) interval?

Well, what do you think?
 
  • #5
jgens said:
Well, what do you think?

Well, my guess is it does but I still fail to see any connection.

[itex]| \sin \displaystyle x- \sin \displaystyle y| = 2 \left| \cos \left( \frac{\displaystyle x+ \displaystyle y}{2} \right) \sin \left( \frac{\displaystyle x- \displaystyle y}{2} \right) \right| [/itex]

Am I getting anywhere with this?
 
  • #6
How about you let [tex] x = b[/tex] and [tex] y = a[/tex]?
 
  • #7
l'Hôpital said:
How about you let [tex] x = b[/tex] and [tex] y = a[/tex]?

Hmm, ok, thank you.

So I get now

|sinb - sina|
__________ <= 1
| b - a|

Which is similar to the theorem f(b)-f(a) / b-a ?

If it is, this basically says that the equation I came up with (which is the derivative) is equal to 1?

Can I work on this further by taking the derivative and getting cosb - cosa?


Sorry if I'm coming off as a bit.. stubborn. This question is really confusing me.
 
  • #8
Mstenbach said:
Hmm, ok, thank you.

So I get now

|sinb - sina|
__________ <= 1
| b - a|

Which is similar to the theorem f(b)-f(a) / b-a ?

If it is, this basically says that the equation I came up with (which is the derivative) is equal to 1?

Can I work on this further by taking the derivative and getting cosb - cosa?Sorry if I'm coming off as a bit.. stubborn. This question is really confusing me.
You're close.
It's not exactly the derivative. I mean, it is the derivative at point c between a and b.

So, we have the equation in the form of
[tex]
\frac{\sin b - \sin a}{b - a} = \cos c
[/tex]
As for your derivative idea, no. Derivative of sin a would be 0 because sin a is a constant. Instead, consider the following:
What do we know about [tex]\cos[/tex]'s range?
 
  • #9
l'Hôpital said:
You're close.
It's not exactly the derivative. I mean, it is the derivative at point c between a and b.

So, we have the equation in the form of
[tex]
\frac{\sin b - \sin a}{b - a} = \cos c
[/tex]
As for your derivative idea, no. Derivative of sin a would be 0 because sin a is a constant. Instead, consider the following:
What do we know about [tex]\cos[/tex]'s range?

Aha! I see it now. The range of cos is between 1 and -1, so it cannot exceed 1... I think I see that now.

Just one question, how did you find "cosc"?

Thank you very much.
 
  • #10
Mstenbach said:
Aha! I see it now. The range of cos is between 1 and -1, so it cannot exceed 1... I think I see that now.

Just one question, how did you find "cosc"?

Thank you very much.

Once more, look up "Mean Value Theorem". It's all in there.
 
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