decibel
- 107
- 1
is there a way to prove that n consecutive integers is always divisible by n!?
thanks in advance
thanks in advance
Gokul43201 said:Just to make this complete (not to nitpick)
starting equations:
n mod y = 0
(n+1) mod y = 0
work:
((n mod y) + (1 mod y)) mod y = 0
(n mod y) + 1 = 0 {y <> +/- 1}
(n mod y) + 1 = n mod y
1 = (n mod y) - (n mod y)
1 = 0
conclusion:
FALSE
No two consecutive integers are divisible by the same factor (>1).
Gokul43201 said:Sorry 'bout that.
To answer your question : In general, NO.
It is true, however for +, - and *.
I'm not sure how your question applies to functions like sin(x), when you are asking about binary operators.
Gokul43201 said:To clarify, when I said 'binary operator', I meant an operator defined on 2 numbers (such as addition, subtraction, exponentiation, etc), not operators defined on the binary representation of numbers.
I'm pretty sure that rule doesn't work for AND, OR, XOR, etc...but I haven't verified this.
"If x op y = y op x then (x op y) mod z = ((x mod z) op (y mod z)) mod z"
In general, this is not necessarily true.