Proving the Divisibility Property of Prime Numbers: A Simple Guide

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The discussion centers on proving the statement that if a prime number p divides the product ab of two integers a and b, then p must divide at least one of the integers a or b. The contrapositive approach is suggested, stating that if p does not divide a and p does not divide b, then p cannot divide ab. Participants emphasize the importance of considering both positive and negative integers in the proof, with suggestions to apply the unique factorization theorem. Clarifications are made that the condition of a or b being greater than p is not necessary for the proof. The conversation concludes with a consensus on the need for a solid understanding of prime factorization and integer properties.
mephillip

Homework Statement


Prove or disprove: let a and b be integers and let p be a prime number. If p divides ab then p divides a or p divides b.

Homework Equations


pk=a
a=pq+r

The Attempt at a Solution


Contrapositive: if p does not divide a and p does not divide b, then p does not divide ab.
p divides a for some integer k; pk=a
p does not divide a for some integer q and r; a=pq+r
If p divides ab and p does not divide a, then p divides b.
gcd(p,a)=1; there exists integers u and v such that pu+av=1.
 
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To prove directly, rather than using contrapositive, apply the unique factorization theorem to factor ab and see where that gets you.
 
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mephillip said:

Homework Statement


Prove or disprove: let a and b be integers and let p be a prime number. If p divides ab then p divides a or p divides b.

Homework Equations


pk=a
a=pq+r

The Attempt at a Solution


Contrapositive: if p does not divide a and p does not divide b, then p does not divide ab.
p divides a for some integer k; pk=a
p does not divide a for some integer q and r; a=pq+r
If p divides ab and p does not divide a, then p divides b.
gcd(p,a)=1; there exists integers u and v such that pu+av=1.

What tools/results are you permitted to know/use?
 
Ray Vickson said:
What tools/results are you permitted to know/use?

What do you mean?
 
FactChecker said:
To prove directly, rather than using contrapositive, apply the unique factorization theorem to factor ab and see where that gets you.

Hello.sorry if this is wrong...I thought it would only work if a and b are greater than zero and one of a and b is greater than P? I also don't understand the question, sure if a and b are both negative(as it says are in integers) p can divide the product, but not both individually using other factors which are only primes? right? so to use the factorisation of primes, I think a or b > 0, and a or b > P

assuming just using two lists of primes for a and b.
 
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mephillip said:
What do you mean?
I mean exactly what I say. Have you already seen some theorems about integers, primes, etc.? Do you know about prime factorization? So, what material do you have available to work with?
 
Bipolar Demon said:
Hello.sorry if this is wrong...I thought it would only work if a and b are greater than zero and one of a and b is greater than P? I also don't understand the question, sure if a and b are both negative(as it says are in integers) p can divide the product, but not both individually using other factors which are only primes? right? so to use the factorisation of primes, I think a or b > 0, and a or b > P

assuming just using two lists of primes for a and b.
Good point. To give a complete proof, the possibility of negative numbers needs to be considered. I think that can be taken care of by proving it for all positive numbers and handling negative numbers as corollaries.
 
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Bipolar Demon said:
and one of a and b is greater than P?
That is not a necessary additional condition.
 
haruspex said:
That is not a necessary additional condition.

Yes, I think I understand. Is it because a= b =p is not ruled out??
 
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Bipolar Demon said:
Yes, I think I understand. Is it because a= b =p is not ruled out??
No, it's because you are given that p divides ab, so (if nonnegative) you can prove that at least one of them is greater than p.
 
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haruspex said:
No, it's because you are given that p divides ab, so (if nonnegative) you can prove that at least one of them is greater than p.

Oh, I think that is what I meant originally but now I am not sure as I said a or b > p and then one of a and b > p.,
thank you, i must study the basics again.
 
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