Proving the equality of two integrals

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Homework Statement



Prove

[tex]\int_{n\pi}^{(n+1)\cdot \pi} \frac{sin(x)}{x} dx = (-1)^n \cdot a_n[/tex]

where [tex]a_n = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{sin(x)}{n\cdot pi x} dx[/tex]

and [tex]n \geq 0[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



My Question is how I do prove that the left side equals the right side? Writting their respective Riemann sums?

Sincerely Yours
Hummingbird
 
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Are you sure you wrote it out correctly? The second integrand isn't defined when n=0, and when n=1 they're certainly not equal.

Did you perhaps mean to write
[tex]a_n = \int_0^{\pi} \frac{\sin x}{x - n\pi} \, dx[/tex]
instead?
 
morphism said:
Are you sure you wrote it out correctly? The second integrand isn't defined when n=0, and when n=1 they're certainly not equal.

Did you perhaps mean to write
[tex]a_n = \int_0^{\pi} \frac{\sin x}{x - n\pi} \, dx[/tex]
instead?

Hi morphism,

I meant to write

[tex]a_n = \int_0^{\pi} \frac{\sin x}{x + n\pi} \, dx[/tex].

Do I write out each side as a series or sum maybe? I would much appreciate a hint if possible:)

Because

I [tex]\int_{n\pi}^{(n+1)\cdot \pi} \frac{sin(x)}{x} dx = sin(x)/x |_{n\pi}^{({n+1})\cdot \pi}[/tex]

Sincerely Yours
Hummingbird
 
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morphism said:
Sorry - that's what I meant to write as well!

Try the substitution [itex]y=x-n\pi[/itex].

Just be clear you mean I need to find the n anti-derivate of the integral and prove that its the same as the integral on right?

If I do what you ask then [itex]y=x+n\pi[/itex] then I get that

[tex]\frac{1}{y} \cdot \int_{0}^{\pi} sin(x) dx[/tex] where [tex]\frac{dy}{dx} = 1[/tex]
 
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morphism said:
I meant for the substitution to be used with the first integral you posted. Is that what you did? I don't understand how you got a \frac{1}{y} on the outside.

Sorry then

[tex]\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{sin(x)}{y} dx[/tex]


I get the anti-derivative of the above to be

[tex]\frac{-cos(x)}{n \dot \pi+x}[/tex]
 
It seems like you aren't applying the substitution properly.

The integral in question is
[tex]\int_{n\pi}^{(n+1)\pi} \frac{\sin x}{x} \, dx.[/tex]

If we let [itex]y=x-n\pi[/itex] then it becomes
[tex]\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\sin (y+n\pi)}{y+n\pi} \, dy.[/tex]

(Notice the change of variables!)

Using a certain identity to simplify [itex]\sin (y+n\pi)[/itex] will wrap things up.
 
morphism said:
It seems like you aren't applying the substitution properly.

The integral in question is
[tex]\int_{n\pi}^{(n+1)\pi} \frac{\sin x}{x} \, dx.[/tex]

If we let [itex]y=x-n\pi[/itex] then it becomes
[tex]\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\sin (y+n\pi)}{y+n\pi} \, dy.[/tex]

(Notice the change of variables!)

Using a certain identity to simplify [itex]\sin (y+n\pi)[/itex] will wrap things up.

Excuse me for asking you mean the unit circle identity where the signe in front of sinus changes constantly as n increases?
 
morphism said:
I mean sin(x+y)=sin(x)cos(y)+sin(y)cos(x).

[tex]\int_0^{\pi} \frac{sin(n \cdot \pi) \cdot cos(y) + cos(n \pi) \cdot sin(y)}{y+n \pi}} dx[/tex]

Excuse me for asking but how does that simplify things?
 
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Hummingbird25 said:
[tex]\int_0^{\pi} \frac{sin(n \cdot \pi) \cdot cos(y) + cos(n \pi) \cdot sin(y)}{y+n \pi}} dx[/tex]

Excuse me for asking but how does that simplify things?

just so you know, you are integrating with respect to y now!
 
sutupidmath said:
just so you know, you are integrating with respect to y now!

Thank You

[tex]\int_0^{\pi} \frac{sin(n \cdot \pi) \cdot cos(y) + cos(n \pi) \cdot sin(y)}{y+n \pi}} dy[/tex]

Do I factor the above or what do I do ?

SR

HM
 
well, i am not sure, but i think that factoring would really simplify things, because noteice that sin(npi), and cos(npi) are sonstants so you would end up with sth similar to
[tex]\int_0^{\pi} \frac{sin(n \cdot \pi) \cdot cos(y) + cos(n \pi) \cdot sin(y)}{y+n \pi}} dy=sin(n\cdot\pi)\int_0^{\pi}\frac{cos(y)}{y+n\pi}dy+cos(n\pi)\int_0^{\pi}\frac{sin(y)}{y+n\pi}dy= (-1)^{n} a_n[/tex]

now [tex]a_n = \int_0^{\pi} \frac{\sin y}{y + n\pi} \, dy[/tex]
 
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sutupidmath said:
well, i am not sure, but i think that factoring would really simplify things, because noteice that sin(npi), and cos(npi) are sonstants so you would end up with sth similar to
[tex]\int_0^{\pi} \frac{sin(n \cdot \pi) \cdot cos(y) + cos(n \pi) \cdot sin(y)}{y+n \pi}} dy=sin(n\cdot\pi)\int_0^{\pi}\frac{cos(y)}{y+n\pi}dy+cos(n\pi)\int_0^{\pi}\frac{sin(y)}{y+n\pi}dy[/tex]

now [tex]a_n = \int_0^{\pi} \frac{\sin y}{y + n\pi} \, dy[/tex]

Hi and thank you for your answer,

I can see that in order to achieve the result I need to get rid of this term here

[tex]sin(n\cdot\pi)\int_0^{\pi}\frac{cos(y)}{y+n\pi}dy[/tex]

Changing this into a sum would that allow me to get rid of this?

It can't simple be that I set n = 0 zero in the first part of the integral to get rid of it?

Sincerely
Maria the (Hummingbird)
 
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If n is an integer, what can you say about the value of [itex]\sin n\pi[/itex]? What about the value of [itex]\cos n\pi[/itex]?
 
e(ho0n3 said:
If n is an integer, what can you say about the value of [itex]\sin n\pi[/itex]? What about the value of [itex]\cos n\pi[/itex]?
Yep, and end of story!>.<
 
e(ho0n3 said:
If n is an integer, what can you say about the value of [itex]\sin n\pi[/itex]? What about the value of [itex]\cos n\pi[/itex]?

If n icreases [itex]\sin n\pi[/itex] always be zero while [itex]\cos n\pi[/itex] will have its sign in fron change from - to plus everytime n increases!Sincerely Maria.
 
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Hummingbird25 said:
If n icreases [itex]\sin n\pi[/itex] always be zero while [itex]\cos n\pi[/itex] will have its sign in fron change from - to plus everytime n increases!

Sincerely Maria.

Yes [tex]sin(n\pi)=0,while----<br /> <br /> cos(n\pi)=(-1)^{n}[/tex]
You are done, have another look at post #14
 
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