Proving (x_k+1, . . . , x_n) forms a basis for V/kerT

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the set (x_k+1, . . . , x_n) forms a basis for the quotient space V/ker T, given that (y_1, . . . , y_k) is a basis for ker T. The participants confirm that the linear independence of (x_k+1, . . . , x_n) and their dimension matching with V/ker T establishes them as a basis. The proof hinges on the definitions of linear independence and spanning sets within the context of vector spaces.

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HyperbolicMan
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Hi, I was working through this proof in my linear al textbook and there's this one step I can't get past. Any help would be appreciated.

Homework Statement



Let V be a finite dimensional vector space, and let T be a linear map defined on V.

ker T \subseteq V and I am T \cong V/kerT

Let (y_1, . . . , y_k) be a basis of ker T. Augment this list by (x_k+1, . . . , x_n) to a basis for V: (y_1, . . . , y_k, x_k+1, . . . , x_n).

Now here's the part that's getting me:

"Obviously, (x_k+1, . . . , x_n) forms a basis of V/kerT"

Homework Equations



ker T \subseteq V and I am T \cong V/kerT

The Attempt at a Solution



I believe that span(x_k+1, . . . , x_n) is isomorphic to V/kerT (they have the same dimension), but I don't see how (x_k+1, . . . , x_n) actually forms a basis for V/kerT
 
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Well xn is linearly independent and it has the same dimension as V/ker T. So it's a basis.
 
hgfalling said:
Well xn is linearly independent and it has the same dimension as V/ker T. So it's a basis.

yes, but I think this only shows that (x_k+1, . . . , x_n) is basis for span(x_k+1, . . . , x_n), not for V/kerT.
 
Follows straight from the definition of basis:
  1. x_{k+1} + \ker{T}, \dots , x_{n} + \ker{T} are linearly independent in V / \ker{T};
  2. x_{k+1} + \ker{T}, \dots , x_{n} + \ker{T} span whole V / \ker{T}.

Tell me which part you have problems with.
 
Last edited:

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