Fermat1
- 180
- 0
Let X be the subset of $$ l_{1}$$ consisting of those sequences $$(x_{n})$$such that
$$$$$$x_{1}+x_{3}+x_{5}+...=x_{2}+x_{4}+x_{6}+...$$
Let Y be the linear span of $${{e_{n}+e_{n+1}:n=1,2,...}}$$ where $$e_{n}$$ is the sequence with a 1 in the nth position, zeroes elsewhere.
You are given that X is a closed subspace, and you use the following result:
Let F be a subspace of E and x be in E. Suppose that for all maps f in the dual space of E satisfying f(y)=0 for all y in F, we have that f(x)=0. Then x is in the closure of Y.
Prove that the closure of Y is equal to X.
My work: I show Y is a subset of X: an aritrary member of Y is of the form:$$t_{1}(e_{1}+e_{2})+...+t_{k}(e_{k}+e_{k+1})$$$$$$ and its easy to show that the sum of the odd positioned terms is equal to the even positioned ones.
So since X is closed, the closure of Y is contained in X. Now I use result with X in place of E and Y in place of F. So let f in the dual of X satisfy f(y)=0 for all y in Y.
taking k=1, then k=2, and so in the above, we see this implies that $$f(e_{n}+e_{n+1})=0$$ for all n. Can anyone help me finish to show f(x)=0 for any x in X?
Thanks
$$$$$$x_{1}+x_{3}+x_{5}+...=x_{2}+x_{4}+x_{6}+...$$
Let Y be the linear span of $${{e_{n}+e_{n+1}:n=1,2,...}}$$ where $$e_{n}$$ is the sequence with a 1 in the nth position, zeroes elsewhere.
You are given that X is a closed subspace, and you use the following result:
Let F be a subspace of E and x be in E. Suppose that for all maps f in the dual space of E satisfying f(y)=0 for all y in F, we have that f(x)=0. Then x is in the closure of Y.
Prove that the closure of Y is equal to X.
My work: I show Y is a subset of X: an aritrary member of Y is of the form:$$t_{1}(e_{1}+e_{2})+...+t_{k}(e_{k}+e_{k+1})$$$$$$ and its easy to show that the sum of the odd positioned terms is equal to the even positioned ones.
So since X is closed, the closure of Y is contained in X. Now I use result with X in place of E and Y in place of F. So let f in the dual of X satisfy f(y)=0 for all y in Y.
taking k=1, then k=2, and so in the above, we see this implies that $$f(e_{n}+e_{n+1})=0$$ for all n. Can anyone help me finish to show f(x)=0 for any x in X?
Thanks