Pseudo frequency? Related to phase shift

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the concept of pseudo-frequency in MRI, specifically how particles with nuclei can spin at the same frequency while exhibiting phase differences. It is established that MRI cannot directly measure these phase differences; instead, it encodes them as pseudo-frequencies to determine the origin of each particle. The phase differences arise from variations in distance from the nuclei to the antenna, and when a magnetic field gradient is applied, the frequencies shift slightly based on position, typically by parts per million.

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  • Basic grasp of frequency and phase in wave mechanics
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nomisme
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I am reading a text about how MRI works and I came across a thing that I am totally confused.

The book mentions about that few particles side by side with their nuclei spinning at the same frequency but they all have a phase difference. Since MRI cannot measure the phase differences directly, it will try to encode the phase differences in term of so called pseudo-frequency. With each unique pseudo frequency the MRI will know where that particle coming from.

The thing I am confused is how can each nuclei share a common frequency yet they have a different frequency due to their phase differences?

Am I misunderstanding something?
 
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I think the phase difference you are referring to is determined by the differences in distance from the nuclei to the antenna.
 
They precess at the same frequency in a uniform magnetic field. Once a field gradient is applied, their frequencies differ slightly depending on position. The gradient means that the applied field changes a little bit, linearly with position. This results in the basic frequency being shifted, typically, by parts per million.
 

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