QM: Potential Energy & Particle Free Fall

LagrangeEuler
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In classical mechanics is defined potential and kinetical energy for particular particle. For example, in case of free fall potential energy of the particle is ##mgh## and kinetic energy is ##\frac{m\upsilon^2}{2}##. In QM there isn't potential of the particle, but potential of part of the space. For example particle could be in the space part where whole energy of the particle is less then potential. Could you explain me this? I'm really confused with this.
 
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There is no such difference between classical mechanics and QM. The potential for a specific particle is a function of space both in quantum mechanics and classical mechanics. The total energy is a property of the particle both in quantum mechanics and classical mechanics.
or example particle could be in the space part where whole energy of the particle is less then potential.
That is a difference, right. In quantum mechanics, the particle can be at locations forbidden for a classical particle (as it does not have enough energy).
 
In case one can get a matrix element and take it's non relativistic form,fourier transform of it gives a potential.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!
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