Quantum Mechanics Positional Operator

UbikPkd
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\Psi_{n}(x) = \sqrt{2/L}sin(\pinx/L), 0 \leqx \leq L


\Psi_{n}(x) = 0, x<0, x>L

\pi is meant to be just normal, not superscript, sorry

n is an integer

show that <\hat{x}> = L/2




<\hat{x}> is the expectation value of the positional operator \hat{x} right?


\hat{x} \Psi= x \Psi i think so...







\int2x/L sin ^{2}(\pi2nx/L) dx

which gets me L/2 - L^{2}/4n^{2} \pi^{2}


but it is supposed to be just L/2 sigh...

any help will be much appreciated :confused:
 
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UbikPkd said:
\Psi_{n}(x) = \sqrt{2/L}sin(\pinx/L), 0 \leqx \leq L


\Psi_{n}(x) = 0, x<0, x>L

\pi is meant to be just normal, not superscript, sorry

n is an integer

show that <\hat{x}> = L/2




<\hat{x}> is the expectation value of the positional operator \hat{x} right?


\hat{x} \Psi= x \Psi i think so...







\int2x/L sin ^{2}(\pi2nx/L) dx

Hint: Put everything inside a single tex quote! As in

\int_0^L ~\frac{2x}{L}~ \sin^{2}(\pi 2 n x / L) dx

This seems right (you used the limits to be 0 and L, right?)
Can you show your steps? You must have made a mistake in the integration.
 
ok here goes, i was wary of doing that because, as you can see, that was my first post and it took forever!

sorry that last one should have read:

\int_0^L ~\frac{2x}{L}~ \sin^{2}(\pi n x / L) dx \int_0^L ~\frac{x}{L}~- ~\frac{x}{L}~ \cos(2 \pi n x / L) dx

integrating by parts:

~\frac{x^{2}}{2L}-(~\frac{x}{L}~~\frac{L}{2n \pi }~\sin(~\frac{2 n \pi x}{L}~)- \int_0^L ~\frac{L}{2 n \pi L}~\sin~\frac{2n \pi x}{L}~dx )\left[ ~\frac{x^{2}}{2L}-~\frac{x}{2n \pi}~\sin(~\frac{2 n \pi x}{L}~)- ~\frac{L}{4 n^{2} \pi^{2}}~\cos~\frac{2n \pi x}{L}~ \right] (between L and 0)

= ~\frac{L}{2}~ - ~\frac{L}{4 n^{2} \pi^{2}}~

but it should just be ~\frac{L}{2}~ ?
 
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you have basically worked out the answer, it's just that you forgot that the when zero is put in as a limit in the second part (the cosine part), it gives 1 aswell. i.e. cos(2 \pi n) = cos(0), so the second part that you got disappears, leaving you with just the L/2 which is what you want.

&lt;x&gt; = ~\frac{L}{2}~ - ~\frac{L}{(2 \pi n)^2}~ + ~\frac{L}{(2 \pi n)^2}~
 
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ppyadof said:
you have basically worked out the answer, it's just that you forgot that the when zero is put in as a limit in the second part (the cosine part), it gives 1 aswell. i.e. cos(2 \pi n) = cos(0), so the second part that you got disappears, leaving you with just the L/2 which is what you want.

&lt;x&gt; = ~\frac{L}{2}~ - ~\frac{L}{(2 \pi n)^2}~ + ~\frac{L}{(2 \pi n)^2}~

AHHHHHH I've done that so many times, still i haven't learnt, thank you very much, both of you!

nrqed
i read your blog, a few days ago id never done any quantum, they threw us in by asking for the wave function of the 'particle in a box' . It was a steep learning curve that lasted all night and several litres of coffee...got there in the end!
 
UbikPkd said:
AHHHHHH I've done that so many times, still i haven't learnt, thank you very much, both of you!

nrqed
i read your blog, a few days ago id never done any quantum, they threw us in by asking for the wave function of the 'particle in a box' . It was a steep learning curve that lasted all night and several litres of coffee...got there in the end!

That's ok. Only too glad to help. Steep learning curves are the best in the long run, take my word for it :P
 
To solve this, I first used the units to work out that a= m* a/m, i.e. t=z/λ. This would allow you to determine the time duration within an interval section by section and then add this to the previous ones to obtain the age of the respective layer. However, this would require a constant thickness per year for each interval. However, since this is most likely not the case, my next consideration was that the age must be the integral of a 1/λ(z) function, which I cannot model.
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