rmln
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- torque equilibrium clarification
Hi, I have the following question:
Suppose you have an ideal rod and two forces of equal magnitude are applied to its ends, in such a way:
Now it is obvious that the rod is in rotational equilibrium but my textbook says that for rotational equilibrium, the net torque must be 0 about any axis, however in this case it is only 0 about its midpoint. So what am I missing here?
Thanks in advance!
Suppose you have an ideal rod and two forces of equal magnitude are applied to its ends, in such a way:
Now it is obvious that the rod is in rotational equilibrium but my textbook says that for rotational equilibrium, the net torque must be 0 about any axis, however in this case it is only 0 about its midpoint. So what am I missing here?
Thanks in advance!