Suppose I have some functions ## \{ y,y_{1},y_{2},...y_{n} \} \subset C^{∞} ## and suppose I know that the Wronskian of these functions is 0. Then can I conclude that these functions are linearly dependent?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Certainly this need not be true for an arbitrary set of functions, but it appears that it is true for analytic functions. My knowledge of these functions is very limited so I won't pursue it much, but are functions in ## C^{∞} ## considered analytic?

Thanks for the clarification.

BiP

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# Question about Wronskians

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