ok, quick and dirty and stupid question about calculation rules with 4 gradients:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

consider the Klein Gordon Lagrangian [tex]L_{KG} = \frac{1}{2} \partial_{\mu}\Phi\partial^{\mu} \Phi - \frac{1}{2} m^2 \Phi^2 [/tex].

Why is

[tex] \partial_{\mu} \left( \frac{\partial L_{KG} }{\partial(\partial_{\mu} \Phi)} \right) = \partial_{\mu}\partial^{\mu} \Phi[/tex]

Where does the factor 2 come from that cancels out the 1/2 ?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Quick question: 4 gradient

Loading...

Similar Threads for Quick question gradient |
---|

I Two particles Dirac type equation question |

I Dirac equation, one question |

I Braket notation question |

B Quick question about Bloch's sphere |

B A couple of questions about photons and superposition. . . |

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**