# Quotient rule and binomial theorem

1. Nov 18, 2013

### Jhenrique

If it's possible to relate the product rule with the binomial theorem, so:

$$(x+y)^2=1x^2y^0+2x^1y^1+1x^0y^2$$
$$D^2(fg)=1f^{(2)}g^{(0)}+2f^{(1)}g^{(1)}+1f^{(0)}g^{(2)}$$

So, is it possible to relate the quotient rule with the binomial theorem too?

2. Nov 18, 2013

### Jorriss

3. Nov 18, 2013

### Staff: Mentor

I don't think so.

4. Nov 19, 2013

### HallsofIvy

Write $f/g$ as $fg^{-1}$ and apply the product rule to that.