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Quotient rule and binomial theorem

  1. Nov 18, 2013 #1
    If it's possible to relate the product rule with the binomial theorem, so:

    [tex](x+y)^2=1x^2y^0+2x^1y^1+1x^0y^2[/tex]
    [tex]D^2(fg)=1f^{(2)}g^{(0)}+2f^{(1)}g^{(1)}+1f^{(0)}g^{(2)}[/tex]

    So, is it possible to relate the quotient rule with the binomial theorem too?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 18, 2013 #2
  4. Nov 18, 2013 #3

    Mark44

    Staff: Mentor

    I don't think so.
     
  5. Nov 19, 2013 #4

    HallsofIvy

    User Avatar
    Staff Emeritus
    Science Advisor

    Write [itex]f/g[/itex] as [itex]fg^{-1}[/itex] and apply the product rule to that.
     
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