Range of one standard deviation from mean

kelvin macks
Messages
60
Reaction score
0
my question is on part ii, my range ( as shown in the photo), is between 4.52 and 16.28, so my working would be (6+10+4+4)/(6+10+4+4+1) X100% ... the answer given is 72% which is differnt form my answer? which part of my working is wrong ?
 

Attachments

  • IMG_20140615_091906[1].jpg
    IMG_20140615_091906[1].jpg
    34 KB · Views: 490
  • IMG_20140615_092016[1].jpg
    IMG_20140615_092016[1].jpg
    93.8 KB · Views: 514
Physics news on Phys.org
Data: # PCs sold in 1 week over 25 weeks:
10,8,7,4,4,8,9,14,17,11,5,4,5,7,10,12,14,10,9,29,7,6,5,10,15

You are asked to find the mean and standard deviation.
you have 1 sd range of 4.52-16.28 which suggests you got a mean of 10.4 and a std dev of 4.8.
Does this agree with the model answers?

Then you are asked to find the percentage of weeks where the number sold per week is within 1sd from the mean.

Your working seems inconsistent with this.
i.e. the way I read it:
If there were 5 weeks where the number sold was 1sd from mean, then the calculation would go 100x5/25=20%
Because there are 25 weeks in total and 5 of them fit inside the range.
 
my answer for standard deviation and mean are correct.. do you mean i should get the ans from the data 10,8,7,4,4,8,9,14,17,11,5,4,5,7,10,12,14,10,9,29,7,6,5,10,15 ? and not from the grouped data (1-5), (6-10) and etc ? my ans now is 18/25 now!
 
OK - so the range is: 5.6 to 15.2

Using data
10,8,7,4,4,8,9,14,17,11,5,4,5,7,10,12,14,10,9,29,7,6,5,10,15Numbers 6-15 inclusive are in the range. Those are:
10,8,7,8,9,14,11,7,10,12,14,10,9,7,6,10,15
17/25 = 68%

Which is fair - you should be inside 1sd of the mean about 68% of the time for normally distributed data.

18/25 is 72%, which agrees with the model answer - did I accidentally exclude one?
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.
Back
Top