Proving Properties of Open Sets in $\mathbb{R}^d$

In summary: Yes, part (d) seems correct. I think that the explanation is that ##O^c_{n+1} \subset O^c## which implies ##d(O_n,O^c_{n+1}) \ge d(O_n,O^c)##, so that ##d(O_n,O^c_{n+1})-d(O_n,O^c) \ge 0##.Yes, part (d) seems correct. I think that the explanation is that ##O^c_{n+1} \subset O^c## which implies ##d(O_n,O^c_{n+1}) \ge d(O_n,O^c)##, so that
  • #1
nateHI
146
4

Homework Statement


Let ##O## be a proper open subset of ##\mathbb{R}^d## (i.e.## O## is open, nonempty, and is not equal to ##\mathbb{R}^d##). For each ##n\in \mathbb{N}## let
##O_n=\big\{x\in O : d(x,O^c)>1/n\big\}##
Prove that:
(a) ##O_n## is open and ##O_n\subset O## for all ##n\in \mathbb{N}##,
(b) ##O_1\subset O_2 \subset \dots ##, and ##\cup_n O_n=O##
(c) If ##O_n\neq 0## then ##d(O_n, O^c)\ge \frac{1}{n}##
(d) If ##O_n\neq 0## then ##d(O_n, O^c_{n+1})\ge \frac{1}{n(n+1)}##

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


(a) solved
(b) solved
(c) I'm not sure what the instructor is looking for here since there is no ##n## and no ##x\in O_n## such that ##d(x,O^c)=\frac{1}{n}## since that would contradict the construction of ##O_n##. It seems like the problem statement should be
If ##O_n\neq 0## then ##d(O_n, O^c)> \frac{1}{n}##.
(d) ##d(O_n,O^c_{n+1})=d(O_n,O^c)-d(O_{n+1},O^c)\ge \frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}=\frac{1}{n(n+1)}##
 
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  • #2
nateHI said:
(c) I'm not sure what the instructor is looking for here since there is no ##n## and no ##x\in O_n## such that ##d(x,O^c)=\frac{1}{n}## since that would contradict the construction of ##O_n##.

The following just a suggestion, not necessarily a useful "hint":

How do your course materials define the distance between two sets? Perhaps to find [itex] d(O_n, O^c) [/itex] you might have to do something like take a limit of distances [itex] d(x_i,O^c) [/itex] with each [itex] d(x_i,O^c) \gt \frac{1}{n} [/itex] but with the sequence of distances converging to [itex] \frac{1}{n} [/itex].
 
Last edited:
  • #3
Stephen Tashi said:
The following just a suggestion, not necessarily a useful "hint":

How do your course materials define the distance between two sets? Perhaps to find [itex] d(O_n, O^c) [/itex] you might have to do something like take a limit of distances [itex] d(x_i,O^c) [/itex] with each [itex] d(x_i,O^c) \gt \frac{1}{n} [/itex] but with the sequence of distances converging to [itex] \frac{1}{n} [/itex].

The distance between the two sets is ##inf d(x_i, y_i)## where ##x_i\in O_n##, ##y_i\in O^c##. But the problem I see is that by part (a) ##O_n## is open (but bounded) hence the lower bound of ##d(O_n, O^c)## is not attainable even though ##O^c## is closed. Also, the limits don't coincide since
##lim_{n\to\infty} d(O_n,O^c)\to 1/n## but ##lim_{n\to\infty}1/n\to 0##
 
  • #4
nateHI said:
hence the lower bound of ##d(O_n, O^c)## is not attainable even though ##O^c## is closed.

One need not attain an infimum for it to be an infimum. Let [itex] O [/itex] be the open interval [itex] (0,1) [/itex]. and let [itex] N = 4 [/itex]. I think [itex] O_n [/itex] is the open interval [itex] ( \frac{1}{4}, \frac{3}{4}) [/itex]. What is distance between [itex] O^C [/itex] and [itex] ( \frac{1}{4}, \frac{3}{4})[/itex] ?.
 
  • #5
Stephen Tashi said:
One need not attain an infimum for it to be an infimum. Let [itex] O [/itex] be the open interval [itex] (0,1) [/itex]. and let [itex] N = 4 [/itex]. I think [itex] O_n [/itex] is the open interval [itex] ( \frac{1}{4}, \frac{3}{4}) [/itex]. What is distance between [itex] O^C [/itex] and [itex] ( \frac{1}{4}, \frac{3}{4})[/itex] ?.

OK thanks, I guess saying ##d(O_n, O^c)\ge 1/4## is just another way of writing what the lower bound is. I was probably overthinking ( possibly under-thinking) things.

Does part (d) seem correct?
 
  • #6
You should explain why ##d(O_n,O^c_{n+1})=d(O_n,O^c)-d(O_{n+1},O^c)##
 

Related to Proving Properties of Open Sets in $\mathbb{R}^d$

1. What are open sets in $\mathbb{R}^d$?

Open sets in $\mathbb{R}^d$ are subsets of the d-dimensional real numbers that contain all of its limit points. This means that for any point in the set, there is a small enough open ball centered at that point that is completely contained within the set.

2. How do you prove that a set is open in $\mathbb{R}^d$?

To prove that a set is open in $\mathbb{R}^d$, you must show that for every point in the set, there exists a small enough open ball centered at that point that is completely contained within the set. This can be done by showing that the distance from any point in the set to its nearest boundary point is greater than zero.

3. What is the definition of a limit point?

A limit point of a set in $\mathbb{R}^d$ is a point that can be arbitrarily close to points in the set, but is not necessarily contained within the set itself.

4. How do you prove that a set is closed in $\mathbb{R}^d$?

To prove that a set is closed in $\mathbb{R}^d$, you can use one of two equivalent methods: showing that the complement of the set is open, or showing that the set contains all of its limit points.

5. Can you give an example of a set that is both open and closed in $\mathbb{R}^d$?

Yes, the empty set and the entire space $\mathbb{R}^d$ are both open and closed in $\mathbb{R}^d$. This is because the empty set contains no points, so all of its limit points are also contained within the set, and the entire space contains all of its limit points by definition.

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