Narcol2000
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What is the reasoning behind defining the helmholtz free energy as F = -kT ln Z?
I always wanted to know why it was just defined as the above. Is it as a form of convenience because the macroscopic theromodynamic observables of a system at constant temperature (ie the canonical ensemble) are related to to the partition function as ln Z?
ie.
[tex] \bar{E} = -\frac{\partial lnZ}{\partial \beta}[/tex]
and
[tex] P = \frac{1}{\beta}\left(\frac{\partial lnZ}{\partial V}\right)_\beta[/tex]
So its just convenient to a create a thermodynamic quantity that is related to T ln Z for a system at temperature T?
I always wanted to know why it was just defined as the above. Is it as a form of convenience because the macroscopic theromodynamic observables of a system at constant temperature (ie the canonical ensemble) are related to to the partition function as ln Z?
ie.
[tex] \bar{E} = -\frac{\partial lnZ}{\partial \beta}[/tex]
and
[tex] P = \frac{1}{\beta}\left(\frac{\partial lnZ}{\partial V}\right)_\beta[/tex]
So its just convenient to a create a thermodynamic quantity that is related to T ln Z for a system at temperature T?