Recursive sets as delta^0_1 in arithmetic hierarchy.

  • Thread starter Thread starter nomadreid
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Arithmetic Sets
nomadreid
Gold Member
Messages
1,748
Reaction score
243
This is an elementary question that I may blush about later, but for now:
given that a recursively enumerable set is a set modeling a Σ01 sentence, and a recursive set is a recursively enumerable set S whose complement ℕ\S is also recursively enumerable. Fine.

But then, letting x = the vector (x0, x1,...xn)
S would be modeling a sentence of the form
(*) ∃(x)F(x) where none of the xi's appear free in F.
However, S is Δ01, so that it also models some statement of the form
(**) ∀(x) G(x)

I am not sure how one comes to the conclusion about Δ; I see that
ℕ\S would model a sentence of the form
∃(x) ~F(x), (where ~ is negation), that is,
~∀(x) F(x)
(I am not working in an intuitionist setting.)
which doesn't quite make it.
What silly mistake am I making, or what obvious fact am I overlooking?
Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
While I am on the topic, I find the term "computable" for recursive functions a bit strange, because we use functions in computers, and functions require more than a single quantifier to define. Where's my conceptual blooper?
 
It's been a long time since I've done this type of stuff, but I'm pretty sure that if a recursively enumerable set S models ∑01 sentences [of the form ∃xF(x)], then the complement ℕ/S models sentences of the form ~∃xF(x), not ∃x~F(x). In other words, the complement models ∀x~F(x), a ∏01 sentence. Thus, if the set S and its complement are both recursively enumerable, then S is both ∑01 and ∏01; in other words, S is Δ01.
 
  • Like
Likes nomadreid
Ah, yes, that makes sense. Thanks, TeethWhitener. May I blush now?
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.
Back
Top